NEET BioTechnology MCQs May ’17
1. If you want to recover many copies of the target DNA, you will choose a vector
(a) which do not have ori gene
(b) which have antibiotic resistance gene
(c) whose ori supports high copy number
(d) which have only one restriction site
2. Which of the following is the correct sequence of making a competent cell?
(a) treatment with divalent cation -»incubation in ice with recombinant DNA heat shock (42°C) —> placing it on ice
(b) heat shock (42°) —> incubation in ice with recombinant DNA -»treatment with divalent cation -> placing on ice.
(c) Treatment with divalent cation placing on ice heat shock (42°C) —> incubation in ice with recombinant DNA.
(d) incubation in ice with recombinant DNA —> heat shock (42°C) -» treatment with divalent cation -> placing it on ice.
3. If a person obtains transformants, by inserting a recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of p-galactosidase, he will separate out recombinants from non-recombinants by observing that
(a) non-recombinant colonies do not produce any colour, whereas recombinants form blue colour colonies
(b) recombinant colonies do not produce any colour, whereas non-recombinants form blue coloured colonies
(c) recombinants and non-recombinants both produce blue coloured colonies
(d) no colonies are formed due to insertional inactivation.
4. Eukaryotic genes do not function properly when cloned into bacterial cell because
(a) of high pH present in bacterial cell
(b) of inability to excise introns and destruction by bacterial restriction enzymes
(c) of inapropriate insertion of genes
(d) both (a) and (b).
5. Which one of the following is not a correct match?
(a) Opines – Ti plasmid
(b) DNA probing – Searching for desired DNA fragment
(c) PCR – DNA staining
(d) Agarose – Sea weeds
6. Which of the following technique is used to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion?
(a) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(d) None of the above
7. Bt corn is made resistant to corn borer disease by the introduction of gene
(a) cry I Ab (b) cry II Ab
(c) ampR (d) cry I Ac.
8. A restriction endonuclease breaks bond between the
(a) base pairs of a DNA molecule
(b) base pairs of a DNA-RNA hybrid molecule
(c) sugar and phosphate components of a nucleic acid molecule.
(d) exons and introns of a DNA molecule.
9. Which of the following is/are correct about the process of RNA interference?
(i) This is used to prevent the infestation of protozoans.
(ii) It takes place in some eukaryotic and all prokaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
(iii) The method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule.
(iv) It is novel strategy to produce pest-resistant plants.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) only
10. Genetic engineering is possible because
(a) we can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like type II restriction endonuclease
(b) restriction endonucleases purified from virus can be used in bacteria
(c) the phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood
(d) we can see DNA by electron microscope.
11. fittoxin gene has been cloned from bacteria and expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects without the need for insecticides. Select these resistant plants from the given list.
(i) Cotton (ii)Corn
(iii) Rice (iv) Tomato
(v) Potato (vi) Soyabean
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi) (d) all of these.
12. Satellite DNA is useful tool in
(a) organ transplantation (b) sex determination (c) forensic science (d) genetic engineering.
13. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insectidical protein. This protein
(a) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it
(b) is coded by several genes including the gene cry
(c) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest
(d) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin.
14. Plasmids are
(a) extra chromosomal DNA which can self replicate
(b) DNA carrying genetic sequence, without expressing it
(c) integrated within host DNA without replication ability
(d) none of these.
15. Read the two statements A and B and identify the correct option from those given below.
Statement A: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is the causative agent of crown gall disease of dicots.
Statement B: Agrobacterium tumefaciens causes infection by entering the plant through wounds and injuries.
(a) Statement A is correct and B is wrong.
(b) Statement B is correct and A is wrong.
(c) Both statements A and B are correct.
(d) Both statements A and B are wrong.
16. RNA interference is essential for the
(a) cell proliferation (b) cell defence
(c) cell differentiation (d) micropropagation.
17. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents?
(a) B – denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands.
(b) A – denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C.
(c) B – extension in the presence of DNA polymerase.
(d) A – annealing with two sets of primers.
18. The Bt toxin is not toxic to human beings because
(a) the pro Bt toxin activation requires temperature above human body temperature.
(b) the Bt toxin recognizes only insect-specific targets
(c) the Bt toxin formation from pre Bt toxin requires pH lower than that present in human stomach
(d) conversion of pro fittoxin to fittoxin takes place only in highly alkaline conditions.
19. Restriction enzymes present in several micro-organism cut foreign DNA at specific sites and destroy them. The enzymes do not destroy the cellular DNA because
(a) the cellular DNA does not have the specific sites
(b) the susceptible specific sites are masked by proteins
(c) the restriction enzyme susceptible sites are modified by cellular enzymes
(d) the restriction enzymes and DNA occupy different compartments.
20. The technique in which foreign DNA is precipitated over surface of metal particles for passing into target cells is
(c) particle gun
(d) chemical mediated gene transfer.
21. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used
(a) as selectable markers
(b) to select healthy vectors
(c) as sequences from where replication starts
(d) to keep the cultures free of infection.
22. cDNA is
(a) formed by reverse transcriptase
(b) cloned DNA
(c) circular DNA
(d) recombinant DNA.
23. Restriction endonuclease enzyme cuts
(a) any fragment of DNA (b) (+) fragment of DNA (c) (-) fragment of DNA (d) double helical DNA.
24. Plant cells can be converted to protoplasts by treating them with
(b) cellulase + pectinase
(c) cellulase + pectinase + lipase
(d) cellulase + pectinase + lipase + protease.
25. Transformation procedure can be identified with the help of selectable markers which are
(a) origin of replication genes
(b) recognition sites (c) cloning sites
(d) antibiotic resistance genes.
26. DNA ligase forms, ‘X’ between adjacent nucleosides and covalently link two individual fragments of double- stranded DNAs. What is ‘X’?
(a) Phosphodioster bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Disulphide bonds (d) Glycosidic bonds
27. Which of the following is not application of transgenic animals?
(a) Developing animals specially for use in xenografting.
(b) Molecular diagnosis of pathogens such as detecting presence of antigens, their proteins or glycoproteins, etc.
(c) To test genetically engineered hormones to increase milk yield, meat production, etc.
(d) To test pharmaceutical proteins, drugs production, etc.
28. Electroporation facilitates introduction of foreign DNA into the target organism by
(a) changing the porosity of the cell wall
(b) changing the electric potential of the cell wall
(c) lysis of the cell wall
(d) active transport across the cell wall.
29. A method for transferring protein to a nitrocellulose membrane on which protein can be detected by a suitable probe is
(a) Southern blotting (b) Northern blotting (c) Western blotting (d) None of these
30. Which one of the given options correctly identifies certain component(s) of vector pBR322?
(a) ori-original restriction enzyme
(b) rap-reduced osmotic pressure
(c) Hin d III, Eco R I – selectable markers
(d) amp”, tef”—antibiotic resistance genes.
31. Read the following four statements (i-iv) and select the incorrect ones.
(i) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.
(ii) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macromolecules.
(iii) Downstream processing is one of the steps of rDNA technology.
(iv) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of rDNA into the host.
Which of the two statements have mistakes?
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
32. The type of restriction enzymes mostly used in rDNA technology is
(a) Type I (b) Type II
(c) Type III (d) all of these
33. cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that control:
(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
(b) corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
(c) tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively
(d) nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
34. Which of the following ion is required for the activity of Type II restriction enzymes?
(a) Ca2+ (b) Mg2+
(c) Cl2+ (d) Mn2+
35. Natural genetic engineer is
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Pseudomonas sp.
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
36. RNA strand in RNA-DNA hybrid is removed by
(a) RNase (b) RNase – H
(c) nuclease (d) none of these.
37. In nature, Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated infection of plant cells leads to
P. Crown gall disease in plants
Q. Hairy root disease in plants
R. Transfer of T-DNA into plant chromosome
S. Transfer of Li-plasmid into the plant cell.
(a) S (b) P and R
(c) Q and S (d) Q
38. Which of the following is/are correct match?
39. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
(a) availability of oxygen throughout the process
(b) addition of preservatives to the product
(c) purification of the product
(d) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel.
40. Some of the steps involved in the production of humulin are given below. Choose the correct sequence.
(i) Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human insulin artificially
(ii) Culturing recombinant E.coli in bioreactors
(iii) Purification of humulin
(iv) Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid
(v) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E.coli
(vi) Extraction of recombinant gene product from E.coli
(a) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii), (v), (vi)
(b) (i), (iii), (v), (vi), (ii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iv), (v), (ii), (vi), (iii)
(d) (iii). (v), (ii), (i), (vi), (iv)
41. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of
(a) polio vaccine (b) BCG vaccine
(c) antitrypsin (d) hepatitis B vaccine.
42. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of future with following improved trait
(a) insect resistance
(b) high lysine content
(c) high protein content
(d) high vitamin A content.
43. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by
(a) enhancer (b) transgene
(c) promotor (d) reporter.
44. Palaeontologists unearthed a human skull during excavation. A small fragment of the scalp tissue was still attached to it. Only little DNA could be extracted from it. If the genes
of the ancient man need to be analysed, the best way of getting sufficient amount of DNA from this extract is
(a) subjecting the DNA to gel electrophoresis
(b) treating the DNA with restriction endonucleases
(c) hybridising the DNA with a DNA probe
(d) subjecting the DNA to polymerase chain reaction.
45. Eco Rl cleaves the DNA strands to produce
(a) blunt ends (b) sticky ends
(c) satellite ends (d) ori replication end.
46. Which one is a true statement regarding Tag polymerase used in PCR?
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.
(b) It serves as a selectable marker.
(c) It is isolated from a virus.
(d) It remains active at high temperature.
47. Cohen and Boyer isolated an antibiotic resistance gene, by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was responsible for conferring antibiotic resistance, in the year
(a) 1962 (b) 1965
(c) 1972 (d) 1982.
48. The enzymes which are absolutely necessary for recombinant DNA technology are
(a) restriction endonucleases and topoisomerases
(b) endonucleases and polymerases
(c) restriction endonucleases and ligases
(d) peptidases and ligases.
49. In biotechnical processes cDNA is prepared from
(a) B-DNA (b) hn RNA
(c) Z-DNA (d) mRNA.
50. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Agrobacterium – tumour tumefaciens
(b) Thermus aquaticus – Bf-gene
(c) Ligase – molecular scissors
(d) Hind II – plasmid vector