NEET Kerala PMT 2015 Solved Part – II

68. In the circulatory system of Pheretima, a, b, c and d represents

a) A-Lateral hearts, B-Sub neural vessel, C-Commissural vessel, D-Lateral oesophageal vessel
(b) A-Lateral hearts, B-Lateral oesophageal vessel, C-Sub neural vessel, D-Commissural vessel
(c) A-Lateral hearts, B-Commissural vessel, C-Sub neural vessel, D-Lateral oesophageal vessel
(d) A-Commissural vessels, B-Lateral hearts, C-Lateral oesophageal vessel, D-Sub neural vessel
(e) A-Commissural vessel, B-Lateral hearts, C-Sub neural vessel, D-Lateral oesophageal vessel

69. The structure in earthworm which serves as a wedge to force open cracks in the soil is
(a) peristomium (b) setae
(c) clitellum (d) typhlosole
(e) prostomium.

70. Which among these is not involved in excretion in cockroaches?
(a) Malpighian tubules (b) Nephrocytes
(c) Uricose glands (d) Maxillary palps
(e) Fat body

71. Frogs
(a) are uricotelic
(b) have olfactory lobes in the midbrain
(c) do not have renal portal system
(d) have lymphatic system
(e) have gall bladder which secretes bile.

72. Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryo are replaced in adult by
(a) blood (b) bones
(c) tendons (d) ligaments
(e) muscle.

73. Which one is a specialised connective tissue among these?
(a) Adipose tissue (b) Bone
(c) Areolar tissue (d) Fibroblasts
(e) Muscle

74. The moiety present at the 5’ end of ribose sugar in a polynucleotide is
(a) OH (b) CH2
(c) phosphate (d) adenine
(e) 5′ methyluracil.

75. Three alleles namely IA, IB and i control the blood grouping in human beings. How many different genotypes are likely to be present in the human population?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 7

76. 1/4TT:1/2Tt:1/4 tt is the binomial expansion of

77. An example for codominance is
(a) eye colour in Drosophila
(b) seed shape and colour in pea plants
(c) AB blood group in man
(d) haemophilia in man
(e) baldness in man.

78. The nuclear structure observed by Henkings in 50% of the insect sperm after spermatogenesis was
(a) X body (b) autosome
(c) Y chromosome (d) nucleolus
(e) polar body.

79. Physical association of genes on a chromosome is called
(a) repulsion (b) linkage
(c) aneuploidy (d) duplication
(e) polyploidy.

80. In the double-helical structure of DNA, the pitch of the helix is
(a) 3.4 nm (b) 0.34 nm
(c) 6.6 nm (d) 34 nm
(e) 6.6 × 10-9 m.

81. In the ribose of RNA, unlike DNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional
(a) COOH group in the 2′ position
(b) OH group in the 5′ position
(c) OH group in the 2′ position
(d) Phosphate group in the 2′ position
(e) Uracil in the 5′ position.

82. What is a nucleosome?
(a) A vesicle containing positively charged histones within nucleolus.
(b) They are similar to endosomes.
(c) A structure formed by wrapping of negatively charged DNA around positively charged histone octamer.
(d) They are the transforming principles discovered by Griffith.
(e) Negatively charged histone octamers.

83. Microsatellites are
(a) repetitive DNA sequences
(b) ESTs (c) YAC
(d) BAC (e) UTR.

84. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon as the code is
(a) unambiguous (b) specific
(c) universal (d) punctuated
(e) degenerate.

85. DNA replicates semi-conservatively was first shown in
(a) Vicia faba (b) E. coli
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(d) Drosophila (e) Caenorhabditis elegans.

86. The enzyme that catalyses transcription of RNA in bacteria
(a) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(b) RNA polymerase I (c) DNA polymerase
(d) RNA polymerase II (e) RNA polymerase III.

87. A molecule to act as a genetic material has the following properties
(i) should be able to replicate
(ii) should be structurally more stable
(iii) should be more reactive and labile
(iv) should provide scope for slow changes.
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(b) (iii) alone is correct.
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(e) (i) alone is correct.

88. Choose the correct statement among the following.
(a) Taylor and his colleagues used E.coli to prove semiconservative replication of DNA.
(b) In Griffith’s experiment the mice infected with R-strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae died due to pneumonia.
(c) Hershey and Chase proved the transforming principle experimentally.
(d) Meselson and Stahl grew Staphylococcus in a medium containing cesium chloride to prove DNA is the genetic material.
(e) Semi-conservative replication was experimentally proved by Meselson and Stahl.

89. A nanometre is
(a) 10–9 m (b) 10–4 m
(c) 10–6 m (d) 10–12 m
(e) 109 m.

90. The precursor of eukaryotic mRNA is
(a) 5srRNA (b) tRNA
(c) rRNA (d) snRNA
(e) hnRNA.

91. The disorder caused by point mutation is
(a) Down’s syndrome (b) sickle cell anaemia
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome (d) tetany
(e) Turner’s syndrome.

92. The secretions of the brush border cells of the intestinal mucosa along with the secretion of goblet cells constitute
(a) succus entericus (b) chyme
(c) gastric juice (d) chylomicrons
(e) bolus.
93. The volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is called
(a) vital capacity (b) functional residual capacity
(c) residual volume (d) total lung capacity
(e) inspiratory capacity.

94. Choose the correct statement among the following.
(a) The intestinal mucosal epithelium has oxyntic cells.
(b) Ptyalin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones.
(c) Crypts of Lieberkuhn is seen between the bases of villi in the intestine.
(d) Sphincter of Oddi is present at the junction of oesophagus and cardiac stomach.
(e) Goblet cells secrete hydrochloric acid in stomach.

95. The body temperature regulatory centre in the brain is
(a) cerebellum (b) corpus callosum
(c) hypothalamus (d) hippocampus
(e) amygdala.

96. Identify the correctly matched structure and its secretion.
(a) Brunner’s gland – Salivary amylase
(b) Intestinal mucosa – Insulin
(c) Gall bladder – Bile
(d) Salivary gland – Lysozyme
(e) Goblet cells – HCl

97. The entry of food into the larynx is prevented by
(a) mitral valve (b) diaphragm
(c) epiglottis (d) hyoid
(e) frenulum.

98. Incomplete double circulation is seen in
(a) fish (b) amphibians
(c) birds (d) mammals
(e) arthropods.

99. Gliding joint is present between the
(a) carpals
(b) humerus and pectoral girdle
(c) carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(d) knee
(e) atlas and axis.

100. Choose the correct statement among the following.
(a) Atrio-ventricular node is the pacemaker that generates action potential and initiates the atrial systole.
(b) During each cardiac cycle, the ‘lubb’ sound is due to the closure of semilunar valves.
(c) Stroke volume in each cardiac cycle is approximately 170 mL of blood.
(d) QRS complex in an ECG indicates depolarisation of ventricles.
(e) The opening between right atrium and right ventricle is guarded by bicuspid valve.

101. Choose the wrong statement regarding urine formation.
(a) Filtration is non-selective process performed by glomerulus.
(b) The glomerular capillary blood pressure causes filtration of blood through three layers.
(c) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately 125 mL/min.
(d) A fall in GFR activates the JG cells to release renin.
(e) The ascending limb of the Henle’s loop is permeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively.

102. Vasa recta refers to
(a) rectum region of the insects
(b) blood capillaries in invertebrates
(c) a fine blood capillary network of afferent arteriole
(d) a fine capillary which runs parallel to Henle’s loop
(e) juxtaglomerular complex of nephrons.

103. Find the wrongly matched pair.
Animal Excretory organ/structure
(a) Balanoglossus – Proboscis gland
(b) Earthworm – Nephridia
(c) Grasshopper – Malpighian tubules
(d) Prawn – Flame cells
(e) Amphioxus – Protonephridia

104. The condition in which the kidneys fail to conserve water leading to water loss and dehydration due to impaired ADH synthesis or release in
(a) Grave’s disease (b) Addison’s disease
(c) diabetes insipidus (d) cretinism
(e) acromegaly.

105. The lumbar region of the vertebral column in man is made up of
(a) 1 fused vertebra (b) 7 vertebrae
(c) 12 vertebrae (d) 5 vertebrae
(e) 2 vertebrae.

106. Muscles of the heart are
(a) striated and voluntary
(b) non-striated and voluntary
(c) striated, unbranched and involuntary
(d) non-striated and involuntary
(e) striated, branched and involuntary.

107. The skeletal muscle fibre is a ‘syncytium’ which means it is
(a) made up of many fibres
(b) made up of many proteins
(c) long and slender
(d) swollen in the middle with tapered ends
(e) multinucleated.

108. The anterior portion of the sclera is called
(a) lens (b) iris
(c) pupil (d) ciliary body
(e) cornea.

109. The projecting ridge in ampulla of semi-circular canals in ear is called
(a) succus entericus (b) macula
(c) otolith (d) crista ampullaris
(e) cochlea.

110. The pars distalis region of pituitary does not produce these hormones
I. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
II. Vasopressin III. Prolactin
IV. Growth hormone
(a) III only (b) I and IV
(c) II and IV (d) II and III
(e) I and II.

111. Function of the somatostatin is to
(a) stimulate pituitary synthesis and release gonadotropins
(b) inhibit the release of gonadotropins from pituitary
(c) stimulate pituitary and promotes the secretion of growth hormone
(d) inhibit the release of growth hormone from the pituitary
(e) stimulate the secretion of thyrotropin from thyroid.

112. Identify the wrongly labelled part.

(a) Primary follicle (b) Ovum
(c) Graafian follicle (d) Corpus luteum
(e) Tertiary follicle

113. Each secondary spermatocyte after second meiotic division produces
(a) four haploid spermatids
(b) only one haploid spermatid
(c) two haploid spermatids
(d) two diploid spermatids
(e) four diploid spermatids.

114. The hormone releasing IUD is
(a) LNG 20 (b) Lippes loop
(c) CuT (d) Multiload 375
(e) Cu7.

115. Read the statements regarding a stable community and choose the correct option.
(i) Must be resistant to occasional disturbances
(ii) Should show much variation in productivity from year to year
(iii) Must be resistant to invasions by alien species
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) only is correct (d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(e) (i) and (iii) are correct

116. Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Endemism – Species confined to a region and not found anywhere else
(b) Hotspots – Western ghats

(c) Sacred groves – Jaintia hills of Rajasthan
(d) ex situ conservation – Zoological parks
(e) Alien species to India – Water hyacinth

117. The cytokine barrier among these is
(a) Polymorphonuclear neutrophil
(b) Monocyte (c) NK cell
(d) Interferon (e) Macrophage

118. Ringworms are caused by
I. Wuchereria II. Microsporum
III. Haemophilus IV. Epidermophyton
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) II and IV (d) I and IV
(e) III and IV.

119. Read the statements.
(i) IgE antibodies are produced in an allergic reaction.
(ii) B-lymphocytes mediate cell mediated immunity.
(iii) The yellowish fluid colostrum has abundant IgE antibodies.
(iv) Spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ. Of the above statements
(a) (i) only is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct (c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct (e) (i) and (iv) are correct.

120. The microbial biocontrol agent for butterfly caterpillar is
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Saccharomyces
(c) Lactobacillus (d) Cyanobacteria
(e) Staphylococcus.


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