Cell & Cell Division Part VI

1) Bromelain is an enzyme extracted from
a) Ficus
b) Papaya
c) Pineapple
d) Yeast

2) A strain of E. coli cannot grow in the absence of lactose. This
means that

a) the lac operon is constitutively working
b) the lac operon is inducibly working
d) in absence of glucose E. coli cannot utilize lactose

3) Which of the following enzymes uses urea as substrate?
a) Uricase
b) Urease
c) Amylase
d) Catalyse

4) In the operon model, the repressor acts by
a) inhibiting the substrate
b) inhibiting mRNA transcription
c) promoting mRNA transcription
d) inhibiting corepressor

5) Vitamin
is a prosthetic group for

a) nitrate reductase
b) thiamine pyrophosphate
c) NAD
d) Flavin mononucleotide

6) A plant proteinase is
a) papain
b) Pepsin
c) Urease
d) Trypsin

7) A coenzyme is generally a
a) metal
b) vitamin
c) inorganic substances
d) both a and c

8) The existence of a cell is not possible without
a) chloroplast
b) phytochromes
c) centrioles
d) enzymes

9) Zymase enzyme belongs to the class called
a) transferase
b) reductase
c) oxido-reductase
d) ligase

10) The maximum number of enzymes are found in
a) Herbivores
b) Carnivores
c) Omnivores
d) None of these

11) The operon concept is applicable to
a) all protozoans
b) only few prokaryotes
c) only eukaryotes
d) both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

12) One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given

a) Yanofsky
b) Morgan
c) Mendel and Muller
d) Beadle and Tatum

13) One of the following enzyme is used to cut genes
at specific sites, and is, therefore, useful in recombinant

a) ligase
b) topoisomerase
c) pepsin
d) restriction endonuclease

14) Hydrolytic enzymes are found in
a) Mitochondria
b) Lysosomes
c) Ribosomes
d) Peroxisomes

15) The proteinaceous part of a conjugated enzyme is the
a) holoenzyme
b) coenzyme
c) apoenzyme
d) prosthetic group

16) The evidence in favourof the lock and key hypothesis

a) allosteric inhibition
b) feedback inhibition
c) a molecule structurally similar to the substrate inhibits the functioning of an enzyme
d) non-competitive inhibition

17) The enzyme which converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate

a) Enolase
b) Aldolase
c) Hexokinase
d) Fumarase

18) The prosthetic group of an enzyme
a) is loosely bound
b) is tightly bound
c) can be organic or inorganic
d) is always inorganic

19) Which of the following represents feedback inhibition?
a) Reaction of snake venom with neuro-transmitter
b) Allosteric compound ATP inhibiting hexokinase enzyme
c) Cyanides inhibiting cytochrome
d) Malate inhibiting succinic dehydrogenase

20) A non-competitive inhibitor of the mitochondrial
enzyme cytochrome oxidase is

a) Thiourea
b) Malonic acid
c) Heparin
d) Potassium cyanide

21) One of the following is incorrect for both inorganic
catalysts and enzymes:

a) They are sensitive to pH
b) They are reaction specific
c) They increase the activation energy
d) They speed up the rate of chemical reaction

22) The optimum temperature for enzyme action is

23) One of the following is not applicable to enzymes:
a) they are temperature sensitive
b) they are pH sensitive
c) they sometimes require some cofactors
d) they are not substrate specific

24) The enzyme required for the repeated conduction of nerve
impulses across a synapse is

a) Peroxidase
b) Choline acetylase
c) Ascorbic acid oxidase
d) Succinic dehydrogenase

25) Ribozyme is RNA
a) without ribose sugar
b) without phosphate groups
c) with enzyme activity
d) with an extra phosphate

26) A starch-hydrolysing enzyme is
a) sucrose
b) invertase
c) amylase
d) cellulase

27) Enzymes which help in electron transfer are
a) Cytochromes
b) Isomerases
d) Chlorophylls

28) At boiling temperature an enzyme is
a) killed
b) denatured
c) unaffected
d) inactivated

29) Restriction endonuclease, an essential enzyme
of biotechnology, is used for

a) synthesizing Okazaki segments
b) splicing RNA
c) cutting dsDNA
d) cutting ssDNA

30) Respiratory enzymes in bacteria are located

a) Cytosol
b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosomes
d) Cell membranes

31) Enzymes with the same function
but different molecular arrangement are

a) apoenzymes
b) coenzymes
c) isoenzymes
d) metalloenzymes

32) If lactose is introduced into the lac operon system,
it will cause

a) repression
b) production of inducible enzymes
c) induction
d) both b and c

33) Amino acids polymerise to form
a) peptides
b) proteins
c) enzymes
d) all above

34) Feedback inhibition discovered by Umbarger in
(1961) is actually induced by the

a) enzyme
b) catalyst
c) end product
d) substrate

35) Enzyme action is by
a) decreasing pH
b) increasing pH
c) binding end product and substrates
d) lowering activation energy

36) The existence of enzymes inside the cells is in
the form of

a) colloids
b) ions
c) solids
d) crystals

37) The haem part of haemoglobin acts as the
a) apoenzyme
b) cofactor
c) holoenzyme
d) coenzyme

38) Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
a) All enzymes are proteins
b) All proteins are enzymes
c) Enzymes are thermolabile
d) Enzymes accelerate the chemical reaction

39) The enzyme complex participating in alcoholic
fermentation and reported by Buchner is

a) lipase
b) pepsin
c) invertase
d) zymase

40) Most of the members of the vitamin B complex act

a) cofactors
b) prosthetic groups
c) coenzymes
d) apoenzymes

41) An endopeptidase of the plant kingdom is
a) trypsin
b) pepsin
c) papain
d) urease

42) The activity of dehydrogenase is inhibited by
a) glycolate
b) pyruvate
c) phosphoglycerate
d) malic acid

43) Enzymes are similar to inorganic catalytic
agents in

a) being proteins
b) their specificity in catalysing a reaction
c) not initiating a reaction but lowering its activation energy
d) being controlled by hormones and the genetic constitution

44) The protein part of an enzyme is specifically responsible for the
a) constant value of activation energy for every enzyme
b) active site constituted by the primary structure
c) arrangement of amino acids
d) its primary structure only

45) At a temperature below the freezing point an enzyme

a) slightly activated
b) killed
c) inactivated
d) unaffected

46) An enzyme that catalyses the rearrangement of
molecular structure and forms a compound of the same
molecular weight is called

a) oxidoreductase
b) isomerase
c) hydrolase
d) ligase

47) The enzyme which converts starch into maltose is
a) ptyalin
b) hydrogenease
c) maltase
d) invertase

48) Which enzyme acts efficiently at
a pH of 2 ?

a) Ptyalin
b) Pepsin
c) Lipase
d) Trypsin

49) Hyaluronidase enzyme is unique to the
a) mammalian ovum
b) lysosome of mammalian egg
c) acrosome of mammalian sperm
d) protease enzyme

50) Which of the following enzymes was first
isolated and purified in the form of crystals?

a) Amylase
b) Urease
c) Pepsin
d) DNA polymerase

51) When a coenzyme is combined with an apoenzyme
it is called a

a) substrate enzyme complex
b) cofactor
c) holoenzyme
d) vitamin E

52) Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) which catalyses
pyruvate to lactate is an example ofa/an

a) antienzyme
b) isoenzyme
c) co-enzyme
d) apoenzyme

53) Which one of the following is a coenzyme?
b) a part of s-RNA
c) a part of t-RNA
d) FMN

54) FAD is a coenzyme; which vitamin is incorporated
into its structure?

d) Vitamin C

55) Dry seeds can endure higher temperature
than the germinating seeds because

a) the seedlings are tender
b) dry seeds have more food reserve
c) hydration makes the enzymes more sensitive to temperature
d) dry seeds are hard

56) Enzymes are different from inorganic catalysts

a) having a high diffusion rate
b) working at high temperature
c) being proteinaceous in nature
d) not being used up in reactions

57) The decision for cell division occurs
a) At the beginning of M-phase
b) At S-stage
c) at G-1 stage

58) Which is the shortest stage in the cell cycle?
b) S
d) M

59) When does the synthesis of RNA stop in the cell cycle?
c) At S-stage
d) At M-stage

60) If one cell has twice as much DNA as another similar cell the most probable is that
a) It is secreting
b) It is dividing
c) It is respiring
d) It is moving

61) Before a cell divides, its amount of DNA becomes
a) Doubled
b) Halved
c) Remains unaltered
d) Decreases

62) What occurs first during a normal mitosis?
a) Spindle formation
b) DNA duplication
c) Growth of daughter cell
d) Cell plate formation

63) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) DNA is synthesized throughout the cell cycle
b) Only extrachromosomal DNA is replicated throughout the cell cycle
c) RNA is synthesized at M stage
d) Chromosomes condense at S stage

64) In karyokinesis the chromosomes exhibit a minimum coiling at
a) Early prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Late anaphase

65) In which of the following stages a chromosome exhibits minimum coiling?
a) Interphase
b) Prophase
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase

66) In which of the following stages of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm grow without the concomitant growth of its nucleus?
a) Metaphase
c) S-stage
d) Prophase

67) At what stage in the cell cycle does the synthesis of chromatin take place?
a) Metaphase
b) Anaphase
c) S-stage
d) Prophase

68) At what stage does DNA synthesis occurs?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Telophase
d) None of the above

69) Cell cycle includes the sequence

70) The phragmoplast is related to
a) Cell elongation
b) Cytokinesis
c) Arrangement of chromosomes on metaphase
d) Division of nucleolus

71) How does cytokinesis occur in a typical plant cell?
a) Through constriction
b) Through cell plate formation
c) Partly through constriction and partly through cell plate formation
d) None of the above

72) In the division of a cell which of the following precedes another?
a) Cytokinesis precedes karyokinesis
b) Karyokinesis precedes cytokinesis
c) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur together
d) Cytokinesis and karyokinesis is random

73) The plane of cell wall formation in a dividing cell is determined by
a) Microtubules
b) Microfilaments
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

74) During which mitotic step does the general condensation of chromosomes begin?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

75) Cells which possess a larger nucleus in proportion to the cytoplasm are perhaps
a) Active and turgid cells
b) Flaccid cells
c) Dead and dehydrated cells
d) Mitotic cells

76) The centrosome is found in the
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleus
c) Nucleolus
d) Chromosome

77) During cell division the chromosomes move to different poles due to the action of the
a) Lysosomes
b) Mitochondria
c) Centrioles
d) Cell plate

78) How many meioses are required to produce 60 seeds?
a) 15
b) 60
c) 75
d) Indefinite

79) The chief contribution of mitosis is
a) In increasing the mass
b) In producing cells genetically similar to the parent cell
c) In occurring in every tissue of plant body
d) In completing the process very swiftly

80) Mitosis actually means
a) Reduction in number of chromosomes
b) Division of nucleus only
c) Division of cytoplasm only
d) Both nuclear (karyokinesis) and cytoplasmic divisions (cytokinesis)

81) Mitosis results in
a) No change in chromosome number
b) Reduction in chromosome number
c) Doubling of chromosome number
d) Increase in cell volume

82) Mitosis is significant because it
a) Can occur in all the parts of the plant body
b) Is completed very rapidly
c) Produces identical cells
d) Can take place under unfavourable conditions

83) The term “mitosis” was given by
a) Farmer
b) Fleming
c) Boveri
d) Moore

84) Mitosis is a process of cell division in which there is
a) Reduction of chromosome number at the end of process
b) Doubling of chromosomes at the end of the process
c) preservation of the chromosome number in the daughter cells
d) Halving of chromosomes during its metaphase

85) The stage of mitosis in which chromosomes begin to separate and move to two poles of a dividing cell is called
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

86) The nuclear membrane disintegrates at
a) Early prophase
b) Pro metaphase
c) Late telophase
d) Late anaphase

87) How many meiotic divisions will be necessary to produce two hundred pollen

a) 100
b) 199
c) 50
d) 200

88) In late prophase, each chromosomal half is called a
a) Chromatin
b) Chromatin fibre
c) Chromatid
d) Half chromatid

89) Cancer is related to
a) Uncontrolled mitosis
b) Non-malignant tumour
c) Controlled division
d) None of the above

90) Chromosomes are not involved in
a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis
c) Cytokinesis
d) Amitosis

91) What brings about equi-distribution of the extra-nuclear material of a cell?
a) Karyokinesis
b) Cytokinesis
c) Amitosis
d) All the above

92) Spindle fibres are made up of
a) Lipids
b) Proteins
c) Pectins
d) Cellulose

93) The spindle fibres arise from the
a) Centriole
b) Centromere
c) Nucleus
d) Mitochondria

94) One of the cell organelles plays an important role in cell division. It
is the

a) Spherosome
b) Centromere
c) Nuclear membrane and Golgi body
d) Centrosome

95) The role of mitosis is not merely to divide a cell into two daughter cells
but to ensure genetic continuity from one cell generation to another cell
generation. The mechanism ensuring genetic continuity is

a) Formation of cells with new chromosomes
b) Formation of two daughter cells
c) Formation of two cells with identical DNA
d) Halving the chromosome number between the two new cells

96) Mitosis produces
a) Nuclei with half the DNA of its mother cell
b) Nuclei with as much DNA as originally present in the mother cell
c) Nuclei with half the number of chromosomes
d) Nuclei with double the quantity of chromatin

97) The plane of new wall formation in a dividing cell is determined by
a) Microtubules
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Microfilaments

98) What happens if karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis?
a) Two cells with one nucleus
b) One cell with two nuclei
c) Two cells, each lacking a nucleus
d) One cell with a nucleus and one without

99) Which of the following phases is opposite to prophase?
a) Metaphase
b) Anaphase
c) Telophase
d) Interphase

100) At what stage of mitosis does the nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear
and the chromosomes decondense?

a) Anaphase
b) Late metaphase
c) Early telophase
d) Late prophase


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