AMU 2014 Solved Paper

1. Nistch was able to get strawberries of different shapes by
(a) splitting the ovary
(b) removing the perianth
(c) selectively removing some carpels
(d) inserting an alcohol dipped needle into the ovary.
2. Plants can be made disease resistant through
(a) colchicine treatment
(b) X-ray treatment
(c) breeding with wild relatives
(d) hormone treatment.
3. Yeast is used for commercial production of
(a) methanol (b) ethanol
(c) butanol (d) citric acid.
4. Microbe used as ‘dot buster1 during myocardial infaction
(a) Penicillium notatum
(b) Clostridium butylicum
(c) Streptococcus
(d) Acetobacter aceti
5. ICBN stands for
(a) Indian Council of British Nature
(b) International code for Biological Nomenclature
(c) International code for Botanical Nomenclature
(d) Indian code for Biological Nomenclature.
6. Which pair of plants are placed in the family Solanaceae?
(a) Datura and Petunia
(b) Datura and Asphodelus
(c) Petunia and Sesbania
(d) Petunia and Pisum
7. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Species diversity, in general, increases from poles to the equator.
(b) Conventional taxonomic methods are equally suitable for higher plants and microorganisms.
(c) India’s share of global species diversity is about 18%.
(d) There are about 25000 known species of plants in India.
8. PAR stands for
(a) Photosynthetically Adaptable Radiation
(b) Photosynthetically Accessible Radiation
(c) Photosynthetic Activity Radiometry
(d) Photosynthetically Active Radiation.
9. Which of the following is the largest taxon among plants in terms of the number of species?
(a) Algae (b) Mosses
(c) Ferns (d) Fungi
10. Which of the following processes will be most adversely affected if microorganisms are removed from a forest ecosystem?
(a) Solar energy fixation and nutrient cycling.
(b) Decomposition of organic matter and photosynthesis.
(c) Nitrogen fixation and decomposition of organic matter
(d) Carbon assimilation and nitrogen fixation.
11. Residual, persistent nucellus present in some seeds is known as
(a) scutellum (b) perisperm
(c) tapetum (d) coleoptile.
12. Adventitious buds at the leaf notches help to propagate the plant of
(a) potato (b) agave
(c) bryophyllum (d) cactus.
13. Gametogenesis refers to the process of
(a) fusion of two gametes
(b) fusion of two gametangia
(c) formation of two types of gametes
(d) formation of male gamete only.
14. Stilt roots are found in
(a) rhizospora (b) maize
(c) banyan (d) colocasia.
15. In a monocot leaf stomata are present
(a) only on abaxial surface
(b) only on adaxial surface
(c) on both the surface
(d) more on abaxial surface.
16. The inflorescence in which sessile flowers are borne acropetally on an elongated rachis; it is called
(a) raceme (b) spike
(c) catkin (d) corymb.
17. Ring like secondary cell wall thickening is referred to as
(a) spiral (b) helical
(c) scalariform (d) annular.
18. Aspergillus nigeris used for commercial and industrial production of
(a) acetic acid (b) butyric acid
(c) citric acid (d) lactic acid.
19. Statin, a blood-cholesterol lowering agent, is commercially obtained from
(a) Trichoderma polysporum
(b) Acetobacter aceti
(c) Clostridium butyricum
(d) Monascus purpureus.
20. Adenylic acid is a/an
(a) nitrogen base (b) nucleoside
(c) nucleotide (d) amino acid.
21. Plants could be grown to maturity in a defined nutrient solution was demonstrated for the first time by
(a) Priestley (b) Von Sacchs
(c) Ingenhausz (d) Van Niel.

23. In PS I, the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorption peak at
(a) 650 nm (b) 660 nm
(c) 680 nm (d) 700 nm.
24. The idea of two pigment systems in light reaction of photosynthesis was given by
(a) Arnon
(b) Hill
(c) Blackman
(d) None of the above.
25. In respiration, more than one R.Q. value results from the use of
(a) glucose (b) sucrose
(c) fat (d) organic acid.
26. In lactic acid fermentation, the number of ATP formed by the oxidation of NADH is
(a) eight (b) six
(c) three (d) nil.
27. During aerobic respiration, acetyl CoA is synthesized in
(a) cytosol (b) mitochondrial matrix
(c) glyoxysomal matrix (d) perichondrial space.
28. The cell attaining their maximal size in terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic modification belong to
(a) meristematic phase of growth
(b) elongation phase of growth
(c) maturation phase of growth
(d) none of the above.
29. Spraying sugarcane crop with a plant hormone increases the length of the stem, thus increasing the yield by as much 20 tonnes per acre. The plant hormone is
(a) gibberellin (b) auxin
(c) cytokinin (d) abscisic acid.
30. The principal function of Golgi apparatus is (a) producing enzymes (b) protein synthesis
(c) synthesis of lipids (d) packaging materials.
31. A scorpioid cyme having all the flowers in the same plane is
(a) rhipidium (b) boxtryx
(c) cincinnus (d) dreponium.
32. Colletrotrichum is an example of
(a) basidiomycetes (b) deuteromycetes
(c) ascomycetes (d) phycomycetes.
33. A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through
(a) hydrogen bond
(b) glycosidic bond
(c) phosphate diester bond
(d) peptide bond.
34. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
(a) translocation (b) inversion
(c) crossing over (d) duplication.
35. Cell cycle includes the sequence
(a) S, Gi, G2, M (b) S, M, G,, G2
(c) G,, S, G2, M (d) M, G,, G2, S.
36. When the concentration of the solutes is low in plant cell, absorption of water is
(a) retarded (b) increased
(c) normal (d) absent.
37. A citizen group called Friends of the Areata Marsh (FOAM) basically belongs to
(a) Germany (b) USA
(c) Canada (d) UK.
38. Which of the following is an example of alien species invading a new ecosystem resulting in biodiversity losses?
(a) Introduction of Nile perch into Lake Victoria in east Africa.
(b) Introduction of water hyacinth into India.
(c) Introduction of African catfish into Indian rivers.
(d) All of the above.
39. The prime contaminants in lakes eutrophied by sewage and agricultural wastes are
(a) sulphates and phosphates
(b) nitrates and sulphates
(c) nitrates and phosphates
(d) nitrates and carbonates.
40. The process of nutrient enrichment of water, and subsequent loss of species diversity is referred to as
(a) bioconcentration (b) biomagnification
(c) eutrophication (d) nitrification.
41. In which cell organelle the genome system is autonomous?
(a) Ribosomes and chloroplasts
(b) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(c) Mitochondria and ribosomes
(d) Golgi bodies and ribosomes
42. Who gave the concept that for a double stranded DNA the ratio between A = T and G s C are equal and constant?
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Wilkins and Franklin
(c) Wilkins and Chargaff
(d) Chargaff
43. In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygotes AaBb x AaBb, if we get 3:1 ratio among the offsprings, the reason for this may be
(a) polygenes (b) linked genes
(c) pleiotropic genes (d) hypostatic genes.
44. What result Mendel would have got, had he self- pollinated a tall F2 plant?
(a) TT and Tt (b) All Tt
(c) All TT (d) All tt
45. Which of the antibiotic is not produced by one of the Monera (Streptomyces)?
(a) Erythromycin (b) Penicillin
(c) Streptomycin (d) Tetramycin
46. Entomophilous flowers are
(a) brightly coloured and produce nectar
(b) colourless
(c) inconspicuous
(d) odourless.
47. Which structural level enables the proteins to function as enzymes?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary (d) Quaternary
48. A distinguishing feature of latex cells is that they are
(a) single-celled elements with anastomosing (fusing) branches
(b) single-celled elements with non-anastomosing branches
(c) multi-celled elements with ansastomosing branches
(d) multi-celled elements with non-anastomosing branches.
49. An organic non-protein cofactor which is easily separable from the apoenzyme is called
(a) prosthetic group (b) coenzyme
(c) alloenzyme (d) all the above.
50. An immature male gametophyte differs from a mature male gametophyte in that it
(a) has not yet left the pollen sac
(b) has not yet germinated and its generative cells has not divided into two male gamete
(c) is a microspore that has not yet divided by mitosis
(d) still consist of microsporocyte.
51. A stretch of DNA consisting of 10-20 bases is most appropriately be called as
(a) polynucleotide (b) nucleotides
(c) nucleosides (d) oligonucleotide.
52. Which biomolecules other than proteins can be catabolised by humans or apes for the production of uric acid?
(a) carbohydrates (b) lipids
(c) nucleic acids (d) vitamins.
53. The 51 amino acids of insulin are arranged in
(a) single polypeptide
(b) two polypeptide having 20 and 31 amino acids
(c) two polypeptide having 25 and 26 amino acids
(d) two polypeptides having 18 and 33 amino acids.
54. Substrate of an enzymes is
(a) the reactant of the reaction catalysed by the enzyme
(b) competitive inhibitor of the enzyme
(c) uncompletitive inhibitor of the enzyme
(d) prosthetic group of the enzyme.
55. Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is not true.
(a) Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction.
(b) Enzymes speed up the attainment of equilibrium of the reaction.
(c) Enzyme change the value of equilibrium constant of the reaction.
(d) All the above.
56. Mitochondrial porins are located in
(a) the outer membrane
(b) the inner membrane
(c) inter-membrane space
(d) both outer and inner membranes.
57. Of the total number of genes estimated in human genome, nearly 10 per cent are contained in
(a) chromosome 11 (b) chromosome 21
(c) Y Chromosome (d) chromosome 1.
58. Human hemoglobin contains
(a) secondary structure
(b) tertiary structure
(c) quaternary structure
(d) all the above.
59. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Population change = (Birth + immigration) – (death + emigration)
(b) Population change = (Birth + immigration) + (death + emigration)
(c) Population change = (Birth + emigration) + (death – immigration)
(d) Population change = (Birth – immigration) – (death + emigration)
60. In order to lessen the suffering of phenylketounurics their diet should have
(a) no phenylalanine and no tyrosine
(b) low phenylalanine and normal requirement of tyrosine
(c) normal recommended amount of phenylalanine
(d) normal recommended amount of both phenylalanine and tyrosine.
61. The technique of DNA finger printing relies on
(a) repetitive DNA (b) mini satellite DNA (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above.
62. During polynucleotide synthesis by the following enzymes, in which case elongation occurs in 5′ -»3′ direction?
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) Reverse transcriptase
(d) All the above
63. Which of the following types of RNA act as adapter molecule
(a) fRNA (b) rRNA
(c) mRNA (d) pre mRNA.
64. In DNA finger printing, the process of DNA hybridization with the help of specific DNA probe is described as
(a) western blotting (b) northern blotting
(c) southern blotting (d) all the above methods.
65. In order to induce the bacterial uptake of plasmids, the bacteria are made ‘competent’ by first treating with

(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium chloride
(c) magnesium chloride(d) calcium chloride.
66. HIV, responsible for AIDS in human is a
(a) ssDNA virus (b) dsDNA virus (c) ssRNA virus (d) dsRNA virus
67. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is converted to mRNA by
(a) splicing (b) capping
(c) tailing (d) all the above.
68. The immunoglobulin disulfides do not join
(a) two heavy chains
(b) light chains with heavy chains
(c) two light chains
(d) all the above.
69. Which of the following techniques is most widely employed to check the progress of restriction enzyme digestion
(a) agarose gel electrophoresis
(b) centrifugation
(c) polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
(d) PCR.
70. The ‘sticky ends’ on each of the two strands of a DNA generated by treatment with restriction enzyme facilitate the action of enzyme
(a) DNA ligase (b) endonuclease
(c) exonudease (d) DNA polymerase.
71. Protein encoded by gene crylAB controls the infestation of which of the following insects
(a) cotton boll worm (b) anopheles mosquito
(c) corn borer (d) aedes mosquito.
72. The first antibody to appear in the serum following stimulation by antigen is
(a) IgM (b) IgG
(c) IgA (d) IgE.
73. Which of the following components are involved in allergic reaction
(a) IgE and mast cells (b) IgG and mast cells
(c) IgA and mast cells (d) IgG and basophils.
74. The location where B-lymphocytes differentiate and mature is in the
(a) bone marrow (b) bursa of Fabricius (c) both (a) and (b) (d) thymus.
75. Myasthenia gravis is an example of
(a) viral diseases
(b) immunodeficient diseases
(c) autoimmune diseases
(d) allergic reactions.
76. Binomial nomenclature means
(a) one name given by two taxonomists
(b) two names, the latinized, other of a person
(c) two names, one scientific, other local
(d) two-word names, the first indicates genus, and other species.
77. Which of the following are not eukaryotes?
(a) Monera (b) Protista
(c) Animals (d) Plants
78. Name of a disease caused by a bacterium is
(a) plague (b) mumps
(c) dengue (d) sleeping sickness.
79. DTP vaccine, a combination vaccine, is effective in humans against
(a) diabetes, polio and tetanus
(b) diphtheria, plague and tetanus
(c) diphtheria, pertussis and typhoid
(d) diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus.
80. The pathogen Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for the disease
(a) influenza (b) pneumonia
(c) plague (d) diphtheria.
81. ‘Ringworm’, a common infectious disease in man causing dry scaly lesions on the skin and scalp, is caused by
(a) bacteria (b) round worms
(c) filarial worms (d) fungi.
82. The sound producing organ of bird is called as
(a) syrinx (b) larynx
(c) trachea (d) glottis.
83. According to IUCN Red list, during the last two decades, the maximum increase in the number of threatened species is among
(a) amphibians (b) reptiles
(c) birds (d) mammals.
84. Appropriate term for the grafting of tissues/organs between the individuals of different species is known as
(a) allograft (b) isograft
(c) xenograft (d) transgraft.
85. Sexual reproduction does not occur in
(a) Ascomycetes (b) Deuteromycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Phycomycetes.
86. A type of metamorphosis in insects with four developmental stages i.e., eggs, larva, pupa and adult is
(a) heminetabolous (b) paurometabolous
(c) holometabolous (d) ametabolous.
87. Which of the following genetic code has a dual functions-coding met and acts as initiator codon?
(a) UAA (b) AUG
(c) UUU (d) UAG
88. The process of conversion of nitrogen to ammonia by the microbes is described as
(a) nitrification (b) denitrification
(c) nitrogen fixation (d) Haber’s process.
89. The type of transport taking across the biomembranes without the help of proteins is
(a) facilitated diffusion (b) active transport (c) simple diffusion (d) diffusion via symport.
90. 70 S ribosomes occurs in
(a) bacteria (b) mitochondria
(c) chloroplasts (d) all the above.
91. Which of the following are not ureotelic?
(a) mammals (b) terrestrial amphibians
(c) aquatic insects (d) birds.
92. The ‘hissardale’ is a breed of sheep developed by crossing between
(a) bikaneri ewes and merino rams
(b) merino ewes and bikaneri rams
(c) deccani ewes and bikaneri rams
(d) merino ewes and apennine rams
93. In habitual alcohol drinkers liver get damaged because of
(a) accumulation of excess glycogen
(b) accumulation of excess fat
(c) excess detoxification
(d) excess deamination.
94. Which is the hormonal method of birth control
(a) pill (b) IUD
(c) vasectomy (d) femidom.
95. Sex determination by chromosomal difference in man and Drosophila is by mechanism called
(a) XX-XY (b) XX-XO
(c) ZZ-ZW (d) (a) and (b).
96. Which of the following set of syndromes show 47 chromosomes in their genetic make up?
(a) Down’s syndrome, Patau’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome
(b) Turner’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome
(d) All the above.
97. The following is/are removed during hemodialysis
(a) urea (b) glucose
(c) amino acids (d) all the above.
98. Genetic disorder hemophilia is characterized by excessive loss of blood. Which of the following statement is not true in relation to this disease
(a) it is an autosomal disease
(b) it is a X-linked disease
(c) any of the factor VIII or IX may be absent
(d) it is a lethal disease.
99. Observe the two structural formulae shown below are

1

(a) isomers (b) epimers
(c) anomers (d) all the above.
100. Fish proteins are considered nutritionally superior to most vegetable proteins because they are rich in
(a) all the 20 amino acids
(b) essential amino acids
(c) peptide bonds
(d) polypeptides.

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