PMT AIPMT Practice Questions – National and State Level

1. In humans, the HIV virus primarily attacks which of the following types of cells?
(a) Epidermal cells
(b) Red blood cells
(c) White blood cells
(d) Neurons
2. A biologist counted 2,500 cells from an embryo on a mircroscope slide and recorded the following data.
Stage                                    Number of cells
Prophase                             125
Metaphase                          50
Anaphase                            50
Telophase                           25
Interphase                          2,250
Total                                 2,500
If these cells had been dividing randomly, it could be reasonably concluded that
(a) the duration of anaphase is approximately one- half of that of telophase
(b) prophase is approximately three times as long as telophase
(c) metaphase is the shortest stage of the cell cycle
(d) interphase is the longest stage of the cell cycle
3. If a tissue has at a given time 1024 cells, how many cycles of mitosis had the original parental single cell undergone?
(a) 512 (b) 100
(c) 1024 (d) 256.
4. Which of the following levels of organization include all of the others?
(a) Population (b) Ecosystem
(c) Community (d) Habitat
5. All of the following statements concerning characteristics of predator-prey relationships are correct except

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(a) a rise in the population of prey is often followed by a rise in the population of predators
(b) camouflage is an adaptation that protects the prey
(c) the production of large number of offspring within very short period of time ensures the survival of some prey populations
(d) the population of predators most often eliminates the population of prey.
6. The function of which of the following organelles directly requires oxygen?
(a) Ribosome (b) Mitochondrion
(c) Golgi apparatus (d) Centriole
7. Flowering plants are capable of fertilization in the absence of water because the
(a) processes of pollination and fertilization occur in the soil
(b) pollen tubes deliver the sperm to the eggs
(c) eggs develop without sperm by parthenogenesis
(d) eggs have a structure that aids in their dispersal by wind.
8. Adaptations that have enabled vertebrates to survive on land include all of the following except
(a) a water-resistant epidermis
(b) development of bony skeleton
(c) external fertilization
(d) embryos enclosed within membranes.
9. An animal has a high surface-area-to-volume ratio of the body, and takes in all the oxygen it needs through its outer epithelium. Identify the animal.
(a) Fish (b) Earthworm
(c) Mammal (d) Snake
10. In the development of a seedling, which of the following will be the last to occur?
(a) Initiation of the breakdown of the food reserve
(b) Initiation of cell division in the root meristem
(c) Emergence of the root
(d) Expansion and greening of the first true foliage leaves
11. In most vertebrates, the sperm cells normally contributes which of the following to the new organism?
(a) Many mitochondria
(b) Significant amount of RNA
(c) A haploid complement of chromosomes
(d) Two sex chromosomes.
12. Most cells that have become transformed into cancer cells have which of the following characteristics when compared to normal healthy cells?
(a) Shorter cell cycle
(b) More carefully regulated rates of cell division
(c) Lower rates of mitosis
(d) Identical DNA
13. If organisms A, B and C belong to the same order but to different families and if organisms D, E and F belong to the same family but to different genera, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?
(a) A and B (b) B and D
(c) C and F (d) E and F
14. A prokaryotic cell has which of the following?
(a) Centrioles (b) Lysosomes
(c) Plasma membrane (d) Mitochondria
15. Which of the following statements regarding coenzymes is true?
(a) They are essential for metabolic reactions in animals but not in plants.
(b) They can facilitate metabolic reactions by combining with enzymes mostly at their active sites.
(c) They are minerals that alter the pH of cells and thus increase the probability of chemical reactions.
(d) They typically work best at temperatures below 37°C.
16. An animal with anterior, posterior, dorsal and ventral surfaces on its body must exhibit
(a) protostomic development
(b) coelomate development
(c) radial symmetry
(d) bilateral symmetry.
17. In diploid organism, phenomenon of crossing over is responsible for
(a) linkages between genes
(b) recombination between homologous genes
(c) segregation between genes
(d) dominance of gene.
18. Which of the following best describes opportunistic, or r-strategy, organisms?
(a) They reach sexual maturity rapidly.
(b) They reach their adult size slowly.
(c) They attain a large body size.
(d) They live for a long time.
19. Which of the following hormones is directly responsible for the maintenance of the uterine lining during pregnancy in mammals?
(a) Oxytocin (b) Progesterone
(c) Prolactin (d) FSH
20. The fact that tracheophytes can survive on land is due to which of the following?
(a) Alternation of generations
(b) A dominant gametophyte stage
(c) Water transport through vascular tissues
(d) Mechanisms other than photosynthesis for carbohydrate production
21. Which of the following provides the weakest evidence that mitochondria were once free-living prokaryotes?
(a) Mitochondrial ribosomes resemble those of prokaryotes.
(b) Mitochondria have DNA that is circular and does not have associated protein.
(c) Mitochondria reproduce by a process similar to binary fission.
(d) Mitochondria and prokaryotes both are found in variety of sizes.
22. Which of the following is an actively dividing tissue in plants?
(a) Cambium (b) Xylem
(c) Phloem (d) Pith
23. Analysis of DNA sequences from two individuals of the same species results in a great estimate of genetic variability than does analysis of amino acid sequences from the same individuals because
(a) different DNA sequences can code for the same amino acid
(b) DNA sequencing is a more reliable technique than protein electrophoresis (c) protein are more easily damaged than the DNA
(d) DNA is more heat-sensitive and therefore varies more.
24. In the tissues, high concentrations of carbon dioxide
(a) increases the affinity of haemoglobin to both oxygen and hydrogen
(b) increases the affinity of haemoglobin to oxygen but decreases its affinity to hydrogen
(c) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin to oxygen but increases its affinity to hydrogen
(d) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin to both oxygen and hydrogen.
25. Double fertilization in an ovule of a flowering plant results in which of the following?
(a) Two embryos
(b) Two seeds in fruit
(c) One embryo and one endosperm
(d) Two fruits joined together
26. Which of the following best describes the cells that result from the process of meiosis in mammals?
(a) They can be used to repair injuries.
(b) They are genetically different from the parent cells.
(c) They are genetically identical to all the other cells in body.
(d) They are identical to each other.
27. The function of which of the following structures is not directly related to diffusion or active transport across its membranes?
(a) Aorta (b) Small intestine
(c) Nephron tubule (d) Capillary
28. A part of the brain used in the transfer of information from one cerebral hemisphere to the other is the
(a) medulla oblongata (b) corpus callosum (c) cerebellum (d) hypothalamus.
29. Fruits often ripen faster when placed in closed paper bags because of the effect of
(a) cytokinin (b) abscisic acid
(c) C02 (d) ethylene.
30. Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion are related in that both
(a) require protein carries
(b) depend on a concentration gradient
(c) occur via contraction of cytoskeletal elements attached to membrane proteins
(d) occur in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells.
31. Which of the following statements about mitochondrial chemiosmosis is not true?
(a) A proton gradient is established across the inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
(b) The energy released from the mitochondrial proton gradient is used to produce ATP.
(c) Proteins embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane play an important role in ATP synthesis.
(d) Heat energy is required to establish the electron transport chain.
32. Which metabolic process is common to both aerobic cellular respiration and alcoholic fermentation?
(a) Krebs’ cycle
(b) Glycolysis
(c) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
(d) Production of a proton gradient
33. All of the following correctly describe the fate of the embryonic layers of a vertebrate except
(a) neural tube and epidermis develop from ectoderm
(b) linings of digestive organs and lungs develop from endoderm
(c) notochord and kidneys develop from endoderm
(d) skeletal muscles and heart develop from mesoderm.
34. The control of breathing is centered in which of the following areas of the brain?
(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Corpus callosum
(c) Cerebellum (d) Medulla oblongata
35. Certain metabolic pathways are affected by the buildup of a product which interacts with an enzyme catalyzing one of the initial step of the pathway this can be an example of
(a) transcriptional regulation
(b) thermodynamic regulation
(c) translational regulation
(d) feedback inhibition.
36. All of the following statements about neurotransmitters are generally true except that
(a) they may cause depolarization or hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
(b) they are actively transported across the synaptic deft
(c) they are released from membrane-bound packets called vesicles
(d) they may be enzymatically degraded at the postsynaptic membrane
37. A major function of the casparian strip of the endodermal cells of a root is to
(a) protect the meristem as the root tip grows through the abrasive soil particles
(b) allow for expansion of the vascular cambium as the root grows laterally
(c) act as diffusion barrier that directs movement of water from soil to water conducting tissue
(d) serve as a site for the storage of excess sugars in the form of starch.
38. Which of the following directly produces the most ATP per mole of glucose during aerobic cellular respiration?
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Electron transport chain and chemiosmosis
(c) Krebs’ cycle
(d) Alcoholic fermentation
39. All of the following could reduce the yield of photosynthetic products except
(a) lower concentrations of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) increased photorespiration
(c) reduced carbon dioxide concentrations in the air spaces of the leaf
(d) increased frequency of stomatal openings.
40. Which of the following is true about the production of polar bodies in humans?
(a) It increases genetic variability.
(b) It provides the maximum amount of cytoplasm and resources to the ovum.
(c) It occurs in male and female vertebrates during meiosis I.
(d) It results in nondisjunction.
41. Coat color in mice is determined by genes at two loci. When black mice from the particular population mate, they produce offspring in the ratios: 9 black: 3 brown : 4 white. These results suggest that white coat color is expressed as a result of
(a) dominance (b) incomplete dominance
(c) codominance (d) epistasis.
42. Which of the following can be diagnosed by examining a karyotype of an individual’s white blood cells?
(a) Sickle cell anemia
(b) Down syndrome
(c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(d) None of these
43. All of the following are common to C3 and C4 photosynthesis except
(a) initial step of C02 fixation
(b) cyclic photophosphorylation
(c) noncyclic photophosphorylation
(d) chemiosmotic phosphorylation.
44. In mammals, a decrease in body temperature results in which of the following responses ?
(a) Release of thyroxine decreases the rate of metabolism.
(b) Blood vessels close to the surface of the skin constrict.
(c) Increased secretion of epinephrine restricts the amount of sugar released into the circulatory system.
(d) Blood vessels in deep muscles constrict so that heat is conserved.
45. Refer the given figures and select the correct option.
(a) C and D reproduce by budding that includes nuclear division only.
(b) All of these reproduce by the asexual mode of reproduction.
(c) B represents multiple fission in an alga.
(d) A shows spore formation in a moneran.
46. Identify the different parts of a typical dicot embryo labelled as A, B and C and select the correct option.

(a) Plumule Cotyledons Radicle
(b) Radicle Cotyledons Plumule
(c) Cotyledons Plumule Radicle
(d) Cotyledons Radicle Plumule

47. Feathery stigma occurs in
(a) Pea (b) Wheat
(c) Datura (d) Caesalpinia.
48. Match Column-1 with Column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column – I Column – II
A Hypothalamus (i) Sperm lysins
B  Acrosome (ii)  Estrogen
C  Graafian follicle (iii)  Relaxin
D  Leydig’s cells (iv)  GnRH
E  Parturition (v)  Testosterone

49. Which one of the following represents the correct match of a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
(b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Urethritis-Bacaillus anthracis
(d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis
50. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) IUI – semen collected from husband or donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus
(b) GIFT – transfer of embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube
(c) ICSI – sperm directly injected into the ovum
(d) ZIFT – transfer of embryos upto 8 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube
51. Match Column-I with Column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below.
5152. Inheritance of roan coat in cattle is an example of
(a) incomplete dominance
(b) codominance
(c) multiple allelism
(d) none of these
53. Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows
(a) a direct relationship
(b) an inverse relationship
(c) a parallel relationship
(d) no relationship.
54. In eukaryotes, the process of splicing of primary transcript involves
(a) removal of introns
(b) capping at 5′ end
(c) tailing (polyadenylation) at 3′ end
(d) all of these.
Identify A, B, mRNA
56. First life form on earth was a
(a) cyanobacterium (b) chemoheterotroph
(c) autotroph (d) photoautotroph.
57. What strategy would you suggest if a person wants to evolve a pureline in an animal?
(a) Cross-breeding (b) Inbreeding
(c) Out-breeding (d) Artificial insemination
58. Shakti, Rattan and Protina (varieties of maize) are rich in
(a) lysine (b) glycine
(c) fats (d) carbohydrates.
59. Most commonly used green manures in India are
(a) Crotalaria juncea (Sunn hemp)
(b) Sesbania aculeata (Dhaincha)
(c) Cyamopsis tetragonoloba (Cluster bean)
(d) all of these.
60. The inoculum is added to the fresh milk in order to convert milk into curd, the term ‘inoculum’ here refers to
(a) a starter rich in vitamin B,2
(b) a starter rich in proteins
(c) a starter containing millions of LAB
(d) an aerobic digester
61. Stirred-tank bioreactors have advantages over shake flasks because they
(a) provide high temperature and pH
(b) provide better aeration and mixing properties
(c) do not allow the entry of C02
(d) are easy to operate.
62. Micro-injection is a method used to
(a) produce sticky ends of DNA
(b) provide protection against pathogen
(c) purify the DNA
(d) inject recombinant DNA into the nucleus of an animal cell.
63. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the process of RNA interference?
(i) This is used to prevent the infestation of protozoans.
(ii) It takes place in some eukaryotic and all prokaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
(iii) The method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule.
(iv) It is a novel strategy to produce pest-resistant plants.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
64. The major site of production of ADA in the body is
(a) bone marrow (b) lymphocytes
(c) blood plasma (d) monocytes.
65. Consider a population in which number of pre- reproductive individuals is very large, number of reproductive individuals is moderate while post- reproductive individuals are fewer. Which kind of age pyramid represents such a population?
6566. The members of a homologous pair of chromosomes
(a) are identical in size and appearance
(b) contain identical genetic information
(c) separate and move to opposite poles of the cell during mitosis
(d) are found only in haploid cells.
67. Two different species can not live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is called
(a) Allen’s law
(b) Bergman’s law
(c) Competitive exclusion principle
(d) Weisman’s theory.
68. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding jhum cultivation?
(a) It is also called as shifting cultivation and has resulted in deforestation.
(b) It helps in increasing crop yield to a considerable extent.
(c) A time-gap of several years is required for the recovery of the land after cultivation.
(d) It involves cutting down of trees of the forest, burning of the plant remains and then using the land for farming.
69. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding algal blooms?
(a) Algal blooms are formed by blue-green algae.
(b) Growth of Eichhornia crassipescauses colouration of water during algal blooms.
(c) Increased growth of algae causes depletion of 02 in water.
(d) Algal blooms cause deterioration of water quality and fish mortality.
70. Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?
(a) Lantana (b) Cynodon
(c) Parthenium (d) Eichhornia
71. Study the following statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets.
(ii) Flora provides the index to the plant species found in a particular area.
(iii) Monographs contain information on only one taxon.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
72. Fungi lacking crosswalls in the mycelium belong to class
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Ascomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
73. A prothallus is
(a) a structure formed before the development of thallus in pteridophytes
(b) a sporophytic structure formed in pteridophytes
(c) a gametophytic structure formed in pteridophytes
(d) a primitive structure formed after fertilization in pteridophytes.
74. Which of the following is an aquatic fern?
(a) Adiantum (b) Dryopteris
(c) Salvinia (d) Equisetum
75. Bilateral symmetry, segmentation, reduced coelom and open circulatory system characterizes which of the following phylum?
(a) Annelida (b) Mollusca
(c) Arthropoda (d) Echinodermata
76. Amphibians share with reptiles all of the following characters except
(a) ventral heart
(b) external fertilization and indirect development
(c) dioecious, oviparous
(d) cold blooded or poikilotherms.
77. The given figure shows some types of inflorescences. Select the option that correctly identifies them
7778. Select the mismatched pair out of the following.
(a) Rhizome -Dryopteris, Nelumbo nucifera
(b) Corm – Crocus sativus, Amorphophallus
(c) Sucker-Curcuma domestica, Zingiber officinale
(d) Tuber – Helianthus tuberosus, Solanum tuberosum
79. Identify the type of vascular bundle as shown in the figure and select the incorrect statement regarding this.
79(a) Figure represents radial vascular bundles in which xylem and phloem occur in the form of separate bundles.
(b) Xylem bundles and phloem bundles occur on different radii.
(c) These are the characteristic of monocot and dicot leaves.
(d) None of these.
80. Male cockroach differs from female cockroach in having
(a) antennae (b) labrum
(c) maxillae (d) anal styles.
81. Read the following statement having two blanks A and B.
In cockroach, a ring of 6 – 8 blind tubules called (A) is present at the junction of foregut and midgut while at the junction of midgut and hindgut is present a ring of 100 – 150 yellow coloured thin filamentous (B).
The one correct option that fills the two blanks is 82. With reference to absorption of minerals, the term ‘outer space’ represents________while ‘inner space’ represents_________
(a) intercellular space and cell wall; cytoplasm and vacuole
(b) cytoplasm and vacuole; intercellular space and cell wall
(c) intercellular is space; vacuole
(d) cytoplasm; vacuole
83. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle enzymes are present in
(a) chloroplasts of mesophyll cells
(b) chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells
(c) cytoplasm of guard cells
(d) cytoplasm of epidermal cells.
84. For NADPH+ FT formation
(a) only PS I is required
(b) only PS II is required
(c) both PS I and PS II are required
(d) only stroma is required.
85. Select the mismatched
(a) Gibberellic acid – Increases yield of sugarcane
(b) Cytokinin – Promotes apical dominance
(c) Ethylene – Sprouting of potato tuber
(d) Abscisic acid –   Inhibits seed germination
86. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like
(a) amino acids and glucose
(b) glucose and fatty acids
(c) fatty acids and glycerol
(d) fructose and some amino acids.
87. The given diagram represents the T.S. of gut. Identify A, B, C and D.
8788. C02 dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin when
(a) PCO2 is high and PO2 is low
(b) PO2 is high and PCO2 is low
(c) PCO2 and PO2 are equal
(d) None of these.
89. During ventricular systole
(a) oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the artery
(b) oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary vein
(c) oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery
(d) oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery.
90. During acute myocardial infarction which of the following changes occurs in the ECG ?
(a) Flattened T wave
(b) Depressed ST segment
(c) Elevated ST segment
(d) Increased length of PQ interval
91. Which of the following is not a factor responsible for maintaining high osmolarity of the renal medulla?
(i) Active transport of salt from the upper region of the ascending limb.
(ii) The spatial arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons.
(iii) Diffusion of urea from the collecting duct.
(iv) Diffusion of salt from the descending limb of the loop of Henle.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
92. Which of the following pairs of organisms are uricotelic?
(a) Cartilaginous fishes and mammals
(b) Reptiles and mammals
(c) Birds and insects
(d) Bony fishes and lizards
93. Which of the following bones form a link between axial and appendicular skeleton?
(a) First rib (b) Clavicle
(c) Scapula (d) Both (a) and (b)
94. Following is the diagram of an eye. Match the labelled parts (A – J) with their functions given below and select the correct option.
95. ‘Pons’ connects the
(a) two cerebral hemispheres
(b) two lobes of cerebellum
(c) cerebrum and cerebellum
(d) spinal cord with the brain.
96. Afferent nerve fibre carries impulses from
(a) effector to central nervous system
(b) receptor to central nervous system
(c) central nervous system to muscle
(d) central nervous system to receptors.
97. Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is initiated by
(a) testosterone (b) thyroxine
(c) MSH (d) LH.
98. Epinephrine is
(a) hormone of the adrenal gland
(b) nephrostomal part of mesoderm
(c) clusters of glomeruli in mammalian kidney
(d) frontal lobe of nephridia.
99. Which of the following is an example of isozyme?
(a) Glucokinase
(b) Lactate dehydrogenase
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
100.Which of the following is the correct match ?
(a) Amyloplasts – Store carbohydrates
(b) Elaioplasts – Store fats and oils
(c) Aleuroplasts – Store proteins
(d) All of these

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Comment ( 1 )
  1. Biology education
    February 12, 2015 at 2:47 pm

    nice post

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