Kerala PMT Solved paper 2014

1. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option
Column -1                 Column – II
A. Ascomycetes           (i) Ustilago
B. Phycomycetes         (ii) Saccharomyces
C. Basidiomycetes      (iii) Trichoderma
D. Deuteromycetes    (iv) Albugo
(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(e) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)

2. Which of the following statement(s) about taxonomical aids is/are true?
I. Keys are used to identify plants and animals based on similarities and dissimilarities.
II. Flora contains the account of habitat and distribution of plants in a given area.
III. Flora provide an index to the plant species found in a particular area.
IV. Monographs provide information for identifying the species found in an area.
(a) I and II only (b) I, II and III only
(c) I and IV only (d) I only
(e) IV only

3. Which one of the following shows, the hierarchical arrangement of taxonomic categories of plants in descending order:
4. Which of the following does not apply to ascomycetes?
(a) Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate.
(b) Commonly known as sac fungi.
(c) Asexual spores called conidia are produced exogenously.
(d) Sexual spores called ascospores are produced endogenously.
(e) They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic or coprophilous.

5. As per Whittaker’s classification, an organism possessing eukaryotic cell structure, multicellular organisation, with a cell wall and nuclear membrane showing heterotrophic nutrition can be placed under kingdom
(a) Monera (b) Protista
(c) Plantae (d) Fungi
(e) Animalia

6. Which of the following groups of algae belongs to class Rhodophyceae?
(a) Laminaria, Fucus, Porphyra, Volvox
(b) Gelidium, Porphyra, Dictyota, Fucus
(c) Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, Polysiphonia
(d) Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Sargassum
(e) Sargassum, Laminaria, Fucus, Dictyota

7. Select the correct statement
(a) Biological names are generally in Greek and written in italics.
(b) Family comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common.
(c) Triticum aestivum comes under the order Sapindales.
(d) An order includes related classes.
(e) Families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the order Polymoniales mainly based on the floral characters.

8. Which of the following groups of organisms have a protein rich layer called pellicle?
(a) Chrysophytes (b) Euglenoids
(c) Dinoflagellates (d) Slime moulds
(e) Protozoans

9. Which of the following are heterosporous pteridophytes?
I. Lycopodium II. Selaginella
III. Equisetum IV. Salvinia
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
(c) III and IV only (d) II and IV only
(e) I and IV only

10. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given

11. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
(b) The sex organs in bryophytes are unicellular.
(c) In bryophyte the main plant body is a gametophyte which is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves.
(d) Common example of liverwort is Polytrichum.
(e) Common example of moss is Marchantia.

12. Read the following statements and identify the correct options given
(A) Angiosperms range in size from microscopic Woiffia to tall trees of Eucalyptus.
(B) In angiosperms, the seeds are enclosed by fruits.
(C) Double fertilisation is an event unique to angiosperms.
(D) In angiosperms, each cell of an embryo sac is diploid.
(E) In angiosperms, the zygote develops into an endosperm

Of the above statements
(a) (A), (B) and (D) alone are correct.
(b) (A), (B) and (E) alone are correct.
(c) (A), (B) and (C) alone are correct.
(d) (B), (C) and (D) alone are correct.
(e) (B), (C) and (E) alone are correct

13. Match the plants in Column I with their modification types in Column II and choose the right options given below
14. In one plant adventitious roots are modified for storage and in the other plant a lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found. They are
(a) Sweet potato and Pistia
(b) Eichhornia and jasmine
(c) Carrot and mint
(d) Turnip and Chrysanthemum
(e) Sweet potato and mint

15. The type of placentation seen in Argemone and primrose are respectively
(a) axile and free-central
(b) parietal and free-central
(c) parietal and basal
(d) marginal and free-central
(e) basal and parietal

16. Consider the following characters with respect to the gynoecium of Fabaceae and choose the correct options given below
(A) Ovary monocarpellary
(B) Many styles (C) Placenta swollen (D) Superior ovary (E) Axile placentation
(a) (A), (D) and (E) only
(b) (D) and (E) only
(c) (A) and (B) only
(d) (A) and (D) only
(e) (C) and (D) only

17. Which of the following characters are not applicable to the anatomy of dicot stem and choose the correct options given below
(A) Collenchymatous hypodermis
(B) Polyarch xylem
(C) Presence of casparian strips on the endodermis
(D) Open vascular bundle
(E) Presence of medullary rays

Of these
(a) (A), (D) and (E) only
(b) (B) and (C) only
(c) (B) and (E) only
(d) (A), (B) and (C) only
(e) (C), (D) and (E) only

18. Which of the followings are the characteristic features of Solanaceae?
(A) Exstipulate leaves
(B) Persistent calyx
(C) Racemose inflorescence
(D) Unilocular ovary
(E) Fruits are either berry or capsule Of these

(a) (A), (B) and (E) are correct
(b) (A), (C) and (D) are correct
(c) (A) only is correct
(d) (B) only is correct
(e) (D) and (E) are correct

19. Pick out the wrong statement
(a) Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem.
(b) The cell wall of collenchyma is made up of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin.
(c) The first formed primary xylem elements are called protoxylem.
(d) The cell wall of parenchyma is made up of pectin.
(e) Gymnosperms have albuminous cells and sieve cells in their phloem
20. Which of these characters does/do not apply to the vascular bundle of monocot stem?
I. Conjoint III. Open
(a) I and II only (c) III and IV only (e) I and IV only
II. Endarch protoxylem IV. Phloem parenchyma is absent
(b) II and III only
(d) III only

21. When one wood is lighter in colour with a lower density, the other wood is darker with a higher density. They are
(a) spring wood and autumn wood
(b) heart wood and late wood
(c) spring wood and early wood
(d) sap wood and spring wood
(e) autumn wood and spring wood

22. Which of the following part of dicot root is made up of cells with suberin deposition in tangential as well as radial walls?

(a) Epidermis (b) Endodermis
(c) Cortex (d) Pericycle
(e) Xylem

23. Choose the matched ones.
24. Which of these organelles does not contain ribosomes?
I. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
II. Chloroplast
III. Golgi apparatus
IV. Mitochondria

(a) I and II only (b) I and IV only
(c) IV only (d) III only
(e) II, III and IV only

Rod like bacteria Helps in cell wall formation Synthesis of lipid Rich in hydrolytic enzymes

25. Match the sub-stage of prophase I of meiosis in Column I and the events in Column II and choose the right option.
Column I
26. Which of the following scientists discovered the triple helical structure of collagen?
(a) G.N. Ramachandran
(b) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(c) Mathias Schleiden
(d) Theodor Schwann
(e) Rudolf Virchow.

27. One type of chromosome has middle centromere whereas the other has a terminal centromere. They are
(a) metacentric and acrocentric
(b) metacentric and telocentric
(c) sub-metacentric and telocentric
(d) telocentric and acrocentric
(e) acrocentric and metacentric

28. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given
29. Which of the following statements regarding fats is true?
(a) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbons excluding the carboxyl carbon.
(b) Glycerol is trihydroxy propane.
(c) Palmitic acid has 18 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.
(d) Oils have higher melting points than fats.
(e) Lipids are generally water soluble

30. Coenzymes NAD and NADP contain the vitamins (a) niacin (b) biotin
(c) thiamine (d) vitamin B,2
(e) vitamin A

31. Which of these is/are wrongly matched?
32. Choose the wrong statement

(a) Cells swell in hypertonic solutions and shrink in hypotonic solutions.
(b) Water potential is the kinetic energy of water which helps in the movement of water.
(c) The absorption of water by seeds and dry wood takes place by a special type of diffusion called imbibition.
(d) Solute potential or is always negative.
(e) Less than 1 % of the water reaching the leaves is used in photosynthesis and plant growth

33. When one element is involved in opening and closing of stomata, the other helps to maintain the ribosome structure. They are
(a) potassium and calcium
(b) phosphorus and sulphur
(c) potassium and magnesium
(d) iron and magnesium
(e) calcium and sulphur

34. Which of the following groups of minerals are micronutrients?
(a) Magnesium, Manganese, Copper, Boron and Phosphorus
(b) Manganese, Copper, Magnesium, Zinc and Boron
(c) Nitrogen, Potassium, Manganese, Copper and Iron
(d) Iron, Manganese, Copper, Molybdenum and Zinc
(e) Carbon, Potassium, Phosphorus, Nitrogen and Oxygen
35. Match the mineral in Column I with the enzyme activated in Column II and choose the correct
36. Which of the following statements regarding cyclic flow of elelctrons during light reactions is false?
(a) This process takes place in the stromal lamella.
(b) ATP synthesis takes place.
(c) NADPH + H+ is synthesized.
(d) Takes place only when light of wavelength beyond 680 nm is available for excitation.
(e) PS II is not involved in the process.

37. In which of the following steps of citric acid cycle, CO2 is evolved?

3738. Find out the mismatched pair
39. Which of these is/are not a property of facilitated transport?
A. Requires special membrane proteins
B. Highly selective
C. Uphill transport
D. Requires ATP energy

(a) A and B only (b) C and D only
(c) A and C only (d) B and C only
(e) B and D only.

40. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid results in the formation of
41. Select the correct order of reactions in glycolysis
A. Conversion of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde to 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate
B. Conversion of 3-phosphoglyceric acid to 2- phosphoglycerate
C. Conversion of BPGA to 3-phosphoglyceric acid
D. Splitting of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate into dihydroxy acetone phosphate and 3- phosphoglyceraldehyde

(a) D, C, A, B (b) B, C, A, B
(c) B, D, A, C (d) A, D, C, B
(e) D, A, C, B

42. Free living nitrogen fixing aerobic bacterium is
(a) Rhodospirillum (b) Anabaena
(c) Nostoc (d) Beijernickia
(e) Rhizobium

43. Which of the following plant growth hormone increases the yield of sugar by increasing the length of stem in sugarcane?
(a) Cytokinin (b) Auxin
(c) Abscisicacid (d) Ethylene
(e) Gibberellic acid

44. Which of the following feature(s) is/are common to both wind and water pollinated flowers?
I. Pollen grains are long and ribbon-like
II. Stigma is large and feathery
III. The flowers are not colourful
IV. The flowers do not produce nectar
(a) III and IV only (b) II and III only
(c) I and II only (d) II only
(e) I only

45. One hormone hastens the maturity period in juvenile conifers, a second hormone controls xylem differentiation while the third increases the tolerance of plants to various stresses and they are respectively
(a) Auxin, Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(b) Gibberellin, Auxin and Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin, Auxin and Ethylene
(d) Gibberellin, Auxin and ABA
(e) Auxin, Gibberellin and ABA

46. Which of the following is not an effect of ethylene?
(a) Promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs.
(b) Breaks seed and bud dormancy.
(c) Brings about horizontal growth of seedlings.
(d) Hastens fruit ripening.
(e) Helps to overcome apical dominance

47. Select the plants pollinated by water
A. Water hyacinth B. Zostera
C. Amorphophallus D. Vallisneria
E. Yucca
(a) A, D and E only
(b) B and E only
(c) B and D only
(d) B, C and D only
(e) A, B and D only

48. The breakdown of detritus into small particles by detrivores is called
(a) Leaching (b) Humification
(c) Catabolism (d) Mineralization
(e) Fragmentation

49. Which of the following statements regarding responses of organisms to abiotic factors is false?
(a) All birds and mammals are capable of thermoregulation.
(b) Majority of animals and nearly all plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment.
(c) Shivering is a kind of exercise which produces heat and raises body temperature.
(d) Very small animals are commonly found in polar regions as they have to spend less energy to generate body heat.
(e) Diapause is a stage of suspended development seen in zooplanktons

50. An orchid growing as an epiphytes on a mango tree is an example for
(a) parasitism (b) predation
(c) commensalism (d) mutualism
(e) competition

51. The ozone hole over Antartica develops each year between
(a) late December and early February
(b) late February and early April
(c) late April and early June
(d) late August and early October
(e) late October and early December.

52. In the equation 52  ,where r stands for dt { K )
(a) intrinsic rate of natural increase
(b) death rate
(c) population density at time t
(d) carrying capacity
(e) the base of natural logarithms

53. Which of the following statements about productivity is true?
(a) Primary productivity of all ecosystems is a constant.
(b) The annual net p(d) Pollutants released by man radically accelerate the aging process of a lake.
(e) Overgrowth of algae leads to scum that depletes the level of dissolved oxygen in the water
56. According to Robert Constanza, 50% of the total cost for ecosystem services goes to
(a) recreation (b) soil formation
(c) nutrient cycling (d) climate regulation (e) habitat for wildlife

57. Which of the following statements(s) regarding energy flow is/are false?
I. The detritus food chain begins with dead organic matter
II. In aquatic ecosystem, detritus food chain is the major conduit for energy flow
III. In terrestrial ecosystem a larger fraction of energy flows through grazing food chain
IV. Producers belong to the first trophic level of the food chain

(a) II and III only (b) III and IV only
(c) I and IV only (d) I and II only
(e) I, II and III only

58. The first recombinant DNA was constructed by linking an antibiotic resistant gene with the native plasmid of
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Clostridium butylicum
(d) Acetobacter aceti
(e) Bacillus thuringiensis

59. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique that is used for
(a) in vivo replication of specific DNA sequence using thermostable DNA polymerase
(b) in vitro synthesis of mRNA
(c) in vitro replication of specific DNA sequence using thermostable DNA polymease
(d) in vivo synthesis of mRNA
(e) separation of DNA fragments according to their size

60. Bioreactors are useful in
(a) separation and purification of a product
(b) processing of large volumes of culture
(c) micro-injection
(d) isolation of genetic material
(e) amplification of genes

62. Match Column I with Column II and choose the right option

64. Functional systems for specific physiological functions are not seen in
(a) Annelids (b) Molluscs
(c) Arthropods (d) Echinoderms
(e) Coelenterates

65. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct answer


66. Which of the following statement/s regarding coelenterates is/are wrong?
I. Cnidocytes are present on the tentacles and on the body
II. Diploblastic with cellular level of organization
III. Polyp forms are free swimming
IV. Exhibits metagenesis
V. Polyps produce medusae sexually and medusae form polyps asexually

(a) II and IV only (b) III and V only
(c) I, II and III only (d) III only
(e) II, III and V only

67. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Teeth in Chondrichthyes are modified ctenoid scales
(b) Air bladder in fishes regulates buoyancy
(c) In amphibians, the tympanum represents the ear
(d) Long bones in birds are pneumatic
(e) Reptiles are poikilotherms

68. Which one of the following is not a sensory structure in cockroach?
(a) Antennae (b) Eyes
(c) Anal cerci (d) Maxillary palps
(e) Proventriculus

69. Choose the wrongly matched pair regarding the position of reproductive structures in earthworm
(a) Testes – 10th and 11th segments
(b) Spermathecae – 6th to 9th segments
(c) Male genital pore – 9th segment
(d) Ovaries – Inter segmental septum of 12th and 13th segments
(e) Female genital pore- 14th segment

70. In cockroach, the arthrodial membrane
(a) forms the hind wings
(b) covers the compound eyes
(c) forms the hypopharynx
(d) forms the tegmina
(e) joins the sderites

71. Choose the wrong statement regarding the circulatory system of frog
(a) Sinus venosus receives blood through major veins called vena cava
(b) The ventricle opens into a sac like conus arteriosus
(c) The erythrocytes are nucleated
(d) Special venous connection between liver and intestine called renal portal system is present
(e) Lymphatic system consists of lymph, lymph channels and lymph nodes

72. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer
I. Gap junctions cement adjacent cells together
II. Areolar tissue contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells
III. Tight junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other
IV. Adhering junctions help to stop substances from leaking across tissues
V. Cells of connective tissue except blood secrete fibres of structural proteins called elastin

(a) I, II and III only are wrong
(b) I, III and IV only are wrong
(c) III and V only are wrong
(d) I, II and V only are wrong
(e) II, IV and V only are wrong

73. Tendons, which attach one bone to another bone are made up of
(a) dense regular connective tissue
(b) dense irregular connective tissue
(c) areolar tissue
(d) adipose tissue
(e) cuboidal epithelial tissue

74. Multiple allelism is observed in
(a) flower colour in Snapdragon
(b) pod colour in Pisum sativum
(c) haemophilia in man
(d) sex determination in birds
(e) ABO blood types

75. The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offsprings in a genetic cross was developed by
(a) Gregor Mendel (b) Kornberg (c) Har Gobind Khorana (d) George Gamow (e) Reginald C. Punnett

76. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division results in aneuploidy.
(b) Additional copy of ‘X’ chromosome in males results in Klinefelter’s syndrome.
(c) Closely located genes in a chromosome always assort independently resulting in recombinants.
(d) According to Mendel, recessive character never blend in heterozygous condition.
(e) Failure of cytokinesis after DNA replication results in polyploidy

77. A person affected with phenylketonuria, lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into
(a) valine (b) proline
(c) histidine (d) tyrosine
(e) methionine

78. Identify the wrong statement about DNA
(a) The length of DNA is defined as the number of base pairs present in it
(b) Cytosine is common to both DNA and RNA
(c) In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is linked to a phosphate group
(d) Thymine is chemically 5-methyl uracil
(e) Deoxythymidine is a nucleoside

79. Choose the wrong statement
(a) In grasshoppers, besides autosomes males have only one X-chromosome, whereas females have a pair of X-chromosomes
(b) In XY type of sex determination, both males and females have same number of chromosomes
(c) In Drosophila, males have one X and one Y chromosome, whereas females have a pair of X-chromosome besides autosomes
(d) In birds, females have one Z and one W chromosomes, whereas males have a pair of Z chromosomes besides autosomes
(e) In insects with XO type of sex determination, all sperms bear X-chromosome besides autosomes

81. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option


82. In sickle cell anemia, the sequence of amino acids from the first to the seventh position of the p-chain of haemoglobin S(FlbS) is
(a) His, Leu, Thr. Pro. Glu, Val, Val
(b) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Glu
(c) Thr, His, Pro, Val, Pro, Val, Glu
(d) Glu, His, Leu, Pro, Val, Glu, Glu
(e) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Val, Glu

83. Which triplet codon does not have a tRNA associated with it?
(a) UAA (b) UUA
(c) UUU (d) AUU
(e) GUU

84. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
I. RNA polymerase associates transiently with ‘Rho’ factor to initiate transcription.
II. In bacteria, transcription and translation takes place in the same compartment.
III. RNA polymerase I is responsible for transcription of tRNA.
IV. When hnRNA undergoes capping process, adenylate residues are added at 3′ end in a template independent manner.
V. hRNA is the precursor of mRNA

(a) II only is correct
(b) II, III and V only are correct
(c) III and IV only are correct
(d) I and IV only are correct
(e) II and V only are correct

85. Choose the correct statement
(a) Haploid content of human DNA is 4.6 x 106 bp.
(b) A nitrogenous base is linked to pentose sugar through phosphodiester linkage.
(c) X-ray diffraction data of Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin was the basis of Watson and Crick’s DNA model.
(d) DNA is an acidic substance was first identified by Watson and Crick.
(e) Ratios between adenine, thymine and guanine, cytosine are not constant

86. Aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for
(a) replication of RNA
(b) formation of peptide bond
(c) splicing
(d) initiation of transcription
(e) termination

87. In eukaryotic genes, coding sequences are called
(a) introns
(b) exons
(c) regulatory sequence
(d) repetitive DNA
(e) histones

88. Which site of the tRNA pairs through hydrogen bonding with the triplet codes on mRNA?
(a) Codon (b) 5′ end of tRNA
(c) 3′ end of tRNA (d) Anticodon (e) Amino acid acceptor end

89. Find the wrongly matched pair
(a) Har Gobind Khorana – synthesized RNA molecules chemically
(b) George Gamow – codon is triplet
(c) Meselson and Stahl – regulation of gene expression
(d) Alec Jeffreys – DNA finger printing
(e) Frederick Sanger – amino acid sequencing

90. If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high frequency, it is referred as
(a) DNA polymorphism
(b) expressed sequence tag
(c) sequence annotation
(d) linkage
(e) triplet codon

91. An eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II transcribes
(a) hnRNA (b) 18S rRNA
(c) 28S rRNA (d) tRNA
(e) snRNAs

92. Match the Column I with Column II and Column III. Choose the correct option


93. Choose the wrong statement among the following
(a) Trypsinogen is activated by enterokinase
(b) The optimum pH for salivary amylase activity is 8.9
(c) Rennin helps in the digestion of milk proteins
(d) Goblet cells secrete mucous
(e) Submucosal glands of the intestine are also known as Brunner’s glands

94. To generate pressure gradients to facilitate expiration and inspiration, the human body uses the intercostal muscles and
(a) alveolar sacs (b) bronchi
(c) primary, secondary and tertiary bronchioles
(d) diaphragm (e) windpipe

95. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Solubility of C02 in blood is 20-25 times higher than that of 02.
(b) The total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration is called the ‘vital capacity1.
(c) 02 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin.
(d) Every 100 ml of deoxygenerated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of C02 to the alveoli.
(e) The diffusion membrane is made of three major layers namely the thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, the endothelium of alveolar capillaries and the basement substance in between them.

96. Match Column I with Column II regarding human excretory system. Choose the correct option


97. Thrombokinase is associated with
(a) elimination of urea and other excretory products from the body
(b) production of erythrocytes from the bone marrow
(c) pulmonary and systemic circulation
(d) cardiac cycle and its regulation
(e) enzymatic reactions in coagulation of blood

98. What is the p02 and pC02 in the systemic arteries?
(a) p02 40 mm Hg; pC02 45 mm Hg
(b) p02 95 mm Hg; pC02 104 mm Hg
(c) p02 95 mm Hg; pC02 40 mm Hg
(d) p02 45 mm Hg; pC02 40 mm Hg
(e) p02 104 mm Hg; pC02 159 mm Hg

99. The striated appearance of a myofibril is due to the distribution pattern of
(a) actin and myosin (b) fascicles (c) troponin (d) meromyosin
(e) sarcoplasmic reticulum

100. Label the parts marked in the human skull and select the correct option


(a) A-temporal bone; B-parietal bone; C-sphenoid bone; D-frontal bone; E-zygomatic bone; F-occipital bone
(b) A-frontal bone; B-zygomatic bone; C-occipital bone; D-sphenoid bone; E-parietal bone; F-temporal bone
(c) A-sphenoid bone; B-occipital bone; C-zygomatic bone; D-parietal bone; E-frontal bone; F-temporal bone
(d) A-sphenoid bone; B-zygomatic bone; C-occipital bone; D-frontal bone; E-temporal bone; F-parietal bone
(e) A-zytomatic bone; B-occipital bone; C-parietal bone; D-frontal bone; E-sphenoid bone; F-temporal bone

101. The ‘U’ shaped bone present at the base of the buccal cavity is
(a) maleus (b) ethmoid
(c) zygomatic (d) hyoid
(e) sphenoid

102. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding conduction of nerve impulse?

(a) In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.
(b) Fluid outside the axon has a high concentration of Na+ and low concentration of K+, in a resting neuron.
(c) Ionic gradients are maintained by Na-K pumps across the resting membrane, which transport 3 Na+ ions outwards for 2K+ ions into the cell.
(d) Resting potential is the electrical potential difference across the resting membrane.
(e) A neuron is polarized only when the outer surface of the axonal membrane possess a negative charge and its inner surface is positively charged.

103. An autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction is
(a) angina (b) CAD
(c) emphysema (d) gout
(e) myasthenia gravis

104. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) Sella turcica is a bony cavity where the pituitary gland is located
(b) Parathyroid hormone decreases the Ca2+ levels in blood
(c) Thymosins play a major role in T cell differentiation
(d) The middle layer of adrenal cortex is zona fasciculata
(e) Insulin stimulates glycogenesis

105. Match the hormones secreted by various endocrine structures and choose the correct option


106. Choose the wrongly matched pair


107. Chylomicrons are
(a) small fat globules coated with protein
(b) protein molecules coated with fat (c) small granules found in gastric juice
(d) neural signals that stimulate intestinal secretions
(e) aerobic microbes

108. When percentage saturation of haemoglobin with 02 is plotted against p02, the curve obtained is
(a) J shaped (b) Hyperbola
(c) Sigmoid (d) U shaped
(e) Urn shaped

109. Identify the correct statement regarding cardiac activity
(a) Normal activities of the human heart is regulated intrinsically, hence, it is neurogenic.
(b) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function through the CNS.
(c) Parasympathetic neural signals increase the rate of heart beat.
(d) Adrenal medullary hormones can increase cardiac output.
(e) The end of a T-wave marks the end of diastole

110. Identify the correct statement regarding urine formation
(a) Counter current mechanism works around the glomerulus and PCT
(b) To prevent diuresis, ADH facilitates water reabsorption from the latter parts of the tubule
(c) Maximum absorption of electrolytes occurs in the Henle’s loop
(d) A decrease in blood pressure can increase the glomerular filtration rate
(e) The collecting duct is impermeable to water and thus helps in diluting the urine

111. The yellowish pigmented spot at the posterior pole of the human eye lateral to the blind spot is
(a) crista (b) saccule
(c) iris (d) meatus
(e) macula lutea

112. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the developing male germ cells
(b) Leydig cells synthesize and secrete androgens
(c) Secretions of the acrosome helps the sperm to enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum
(d) Secondary spermatocytes are diploid
(e) The fluid filled cavity in the tertiary follicle is called antrum

113. The inner glandular layer of the uterus is

(a) endometrium (b) myometrium
(c) Fallopian tubes (d) perimetrium
(e) infundibulum

114. The release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules is called
(a) spermiogenesis (b) spermiation (c) spermatogenesis (d) fertilisation (e) gametogenesis

115. Find the wrongly matched pair


116. Which one among these is not an ex-situ conservation strategy?
(a) Seed banks (b) Botanical gardens
(c) Cryopreservation (d) Biosphere reserves (e) Tissue culture

117. The semi dwarf wheat which was instrumental in increasing wheat production was developed by
(a) Alexander von Humboldt
(b) Paul Ehrlich (c) Dr. Kurien
(d) Edward Jenner (e) Norman E. Borlaug

118. Ernest Chain and Howard Florey’s contribution was
(a) discovery of streptokinase
(b) establishing the potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic
(c) discovery of the DNA sequencer
(d) isolating the bacterial plasmid
(e) production of genetically engineered insulin

119. Match Column I with

120. Viruses of the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus are employed as
(a) gobar gas producers
(b) biological control agents
(c) anaerobic sludge digesters
(d) antibiotics
(e) atmospheric nitrogen fixing agents.


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