AIPMT – All India Premedical test solved paper 2014

1. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non- flagellated gametes?
(a) Sargassum (b) Ectocarpus
(c) Ulothrix (d) Spirogyra

2. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on
(a) presence or absence of a well defined nucleus
(b) mode of reproduction
(c) mode of nutrition
(d) complexity of body organisation

3. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens?
(a) Morchella esculenta
(b) Amanita muscaria
(c) Neurospora sp.
(d) Ustilago sp

4. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in
(a) cell membrane structure
(b) mode of nutrition
(c) cell shape
(d) mode of reproduction

5. Which one of the following is wrong about Charal
(a) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
(b) Globule and nucule present on the same plant
(c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
(d) Globule is male reproductive structure

6. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?
(a) Marchantia (b) Riccia
(c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum

7. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in
(a) apple (b) banana
(c) tomato (d) potato

8. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as
(a) vexillary (b) imbricate
(c) twisted (d) valvate

9. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root.Which ofthefollowing anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?
(a) Secondary xylem (b) Secondary phloem
(c) Protoxylem (d) Cortical cells

10. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The seed in grasses is not endospermic
(b) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
(c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain
(d) A sterile pistil is called a staminode

11. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in
(a) having casparian strips
(b) being imperforate
(c) lacking nucleus
(d) being lignified

12. An example of edible underground stem is
(a) carrot (b) groundnut
(c) sweet potato (d) potato

13. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?
(a) Nucleoid (b) Ribosomes
(c) Cell wall (d) Mesosomes

14. The solid linear cytoske I eta I elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as
(a) microtubules (b) microfilaments
(c) intermediate filaments
(d) lamins

15. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by
(a) mitochondria (b) vacuoles
(c) plastids (d) ribosomes

16. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?
(a) Go and Gi (b) G, and S
(c) Only G2 (d) G2 and M

17. Match the following and select the correct answer.17
18. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment?
(a) It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin.
(b) It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth-promoting substances.
(c) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin.
(d) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins

19. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in
(a) senescent leaves (b) young leaves (c) roots (d) buds

20. In which one of the following processes C02 is not released?
(a) Aerobic respiration in plants
(b) Aerobic respiration in animals
(c) Alcoholic fermentation
(d) Lactate fermentation

21. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of
(a) Rhodospirillum (b) Spirogyra
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Ulva

22. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?
(a) Mutated (b) Embolised
(c) Etiolated (d) Defoliated

23. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’?
(a) Abscisic acid (b) Ethylene
(c) GA3 (d) Indole acetic acid

24. Geitonogamy involves
(a) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant
(b) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower
(c) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population
(d) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population

25. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in
(a) Pteris (b) Funaria
(c) Lilium (d) Pinus

26. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from
(a) multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
(b) multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium
(c) complete inflorescence
(d) multicarpellary superior ovary

27. Pollen tablets are available in the market for
(a) in vitro fertilization
(b) breeding programmes
(c) supplementing food
(d) ex situ conservation

28. Function of filiform apparatus is to
(a) recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
(b) stimulate division of generative cell
(c) produce nectar
(d) guide the entry of pollen tube

29. Non-albuminous seed is produced in
(a) maize (b) castor
(c) wheat (d) pea

30. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?
(a) Polio virus (b) Tobacco mosaic virus (c) Measles virus (d) Retrovirus

31. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Transcription – Writing information from DNA to f-RNA.
(b) Translation – Using information in m-RNA to make protein
(c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis
(d) Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter

32. Transformation was discovered by
(a) Meselson and Stahl
(b) Hershey and Chase
(c) Griffith
(d) Watson and Crick

33. Fruit colour in squash is an example of
(a) recessive epistasis
(b) dominant epistasis
(c) complementary genes
(d) inhibitory genes

34. Viruses have
(a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
(b) prokaryotic nucleus
(c) single chromosome
(d) both DNA and RNA

35. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is
(a) insulin (b) estrogen
(c) thyroxin (d) progesterone

36. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use
(a) electrophoresis (b) blotting
(c) autoradiography (d) PCR

37. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized by
(a) PCR and RAPD
(b) northern blotting
(c) electrophoresis and HPLC
(d) microscopy

38. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is
(a) Ulothrix (b) Chlorella
(c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia

39. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?
(a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(b) Yeast artificial chromosome
(c) Plasmid (d) Cosmid

40. An example of ex situ conservation is
(a) National Park (b) Seed Bank
(c) Wildlife Sanctuary (d) Sacred Grove

41. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the
(a) trees are very healthy
(b) trees are heavily infested
(c) location is highly polluted
(d) location is not polluted

42. Match the following and select the correct option
42
43. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called
(a) vulnerable
(b) endemic
(c) critically endangered
(d) extinct.

44. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called
(a) ionosphere (b) mesosphere
(c) stratosphere (d) troposphere

45. The organization which publishes the Red list of species is
(a) ICFRE (b) IUCN
(c) UNEP (d) WWF

46. Select the taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species
(a) Echinoderms (b) Ctenophora
(c) Cephalochordata (d) Cnidaria

47. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) Sea – fan (Gorgonia)
(c) Saccharomyces (d) Blue – green algae

48. Planaria possesses high capacity of
(a) metamorphosis
(b) regeneration
(c) alternation of generation
(d) bioluminescence

49. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is
(a) Pristis (b) Torpedo
(c) Trygon (d) Scoliodon

50. Choose the correctly matched pair
(a) Tendon – Specialized connective tissue
(b) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
(c) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue
(d) Cartilage – Loose connective tissue

51. Choose the correctly matched pair
(a) Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated epithelium
(b) Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium
(c) Tubular parts of nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium
(d) Inner surface of bronchioles – Squamous epithelium

52. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle
(a) amount of DNA doubles in each cell
(b) amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(c) chromosome number is increased
(d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell

53. The motile bacteria are able to move by
(a) fimbriae (b) flagella
(c) cilia (d) pili

54. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action
(a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site.
(b) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate.
(c) A non – competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate.
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase

55. Which one of the following is a non – reducing carbohydrate?
(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose
(c) Lactose (d) Ribose 5 – phosphate

56. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis?
(a) Pachytene (b) Zygotene
(c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis

57. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by
(a) lipase (b) trypsin
(c) rennin (d) pepsin

58. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called
(a) active transport
(b) facilitated transport
(c) simple diffusion
(d) co-transport mechanism

59. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
(a) as bicarbonate ions
(b) in the form of dissolved gas molecules
(c) by binding to R.B.C
(d) as carbamino – haemoglobin

60. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has
(a) both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
(b) both A and B antibodies in the plasma
(c) no antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma
(d) both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies

61. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?
(a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
(c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
(d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases

62. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
(a) Increase in aldosterone levels
(b) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(c) Decrease in aldosterone levels
(d) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

63. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system
Type of joint Example
(a) Cartilaginous joint – between frontal and parietal
(b) Pivot joint – between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
(c) Hinge joint – between humerus and pectoral girdle
(d) Gliding joint – between carpals

64. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at
(a) the neuromuscular junction
(b) the transverse tubules
(c) the myofibril
(d) the sacroplasmic reticulum

65. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt
(a) short – term memory
(b) co-ordination during locomotion
(c) executive functions, such as decision making
(d) regulation of body temperature

66. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photo pigments
(b) In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments
(c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C
(d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only

67. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function
(a) Oxytocin – posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands
(b) Melatonin – pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle
(c) Progesterone – corpus luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs
(d) Atrial natriuretic factor – ventricular wall, increases the blood pressure

68. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of
(a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
(b) the kidney, leading to suppression of renin- angiotensin-aldosterone pathway
(c) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
(d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels

69. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is
(a) urethra (b) ureter
(c) vas deferens (d) vasa efferentia

70. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce
(a) estrogen only
(b) progesterone
(c) human chorionic gonadotropin
(d) relaxin only

71. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female
(a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium
(b) High level of FSH and LH facilitates implantation of the embryo
(c) High level hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.
(d) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium

72. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
(a) small part of the Fallopian tube is removed or tied up
(b) ovaries are removed surgically
(c) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
(d) uterus is removed surgically

73. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?
(a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG – 20
(c) Cervical cap (d) Vault

74. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of
(a) ovum into the Fallopian tube
(b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
(c) zygote into the uterus
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube

75. A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?
(a) 25% (b) 0%
(c) 50% (d) 75%

76. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.7

77. A human female with Turner’s syndrome
(a) has 45 chromosomes with XO
(b) has one additional X chromosome
(c) exhibits male characters
(d) is able to produce children with normal husband

78. Select the correct option
78
79. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are
(a) T-DNA
(b) BAC and YAC
(c) expression vectors
(d) T/A cloning vectors

81. Which one of the following are analogous structures?
(a) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon
(b) Gills of prawn and lungs of man
(c) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(d) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse

82. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtain
82
83. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
(a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
(b) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
(c) When HIV damages large number of helper T – Lymphocytes
(d) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

84. To obtain virus – free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?
(a) Apical meristem only
(b) Palisade parenchyma
(c) Both apical and axillary meristems
(d) Epidermis only

85. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?
(a) Methane and CO2 only
(b) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
(d) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and 02 (d) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2

86. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to
(a) Western Ghat
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Corbett National Park
(d) Keolado National Park

87. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks

8788. Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?
88-a88-b89. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes
(a) gases like sulphur dioxide
(b) particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
(c) gases like ozone and methane
(d) particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less.

90. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain?
plant -> mice -»snake -» peacock
(a) 0.02 J
(b) 0.002 J
(c) 0.2 J
(d) 0.0002 J
Answers

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