AIIMS AIPMT JIPMER PMT IBO Locomotion and Movement MCQs

1. Identify from the given list, the characteristics of red muscles (A) and white muscles (B) and select the option that correctly segregates the characters.
(i) Less number of mitochondria
(ii) More number of mitochondria
(iii) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is abundant
(iv) High myoglobin content
(v) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is less
(vi) Aerobic muscles
(vii) Depend on anaerobic respiration for energy
(viii) Less myoglobin content

A B
(a) (i), (iii), (vii), (viii) (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(b) (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)  (i), (iii), (vii), (viii)
(c) (i), (iii), (iv), (vii) (ii), (v), (vi), (viii)
(d) (ii), (v), (vi), (viii) (i), (iii), (iv), (vii)

2. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Movable skull bone is mandible.
(b) We move our hands, while walking for balancing.
(c) Cartilaginous joints have little mobility due to fibrocartilage disc between its articular ends.
(d) All of the above.
3. Match the following and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-ll
A. Fast muscle fibres (i) Myoglobin
B. Slow muscle fibres (ii) Lactic acid
C. Actin filament (iii) Contractile unit
D. Sarcomere (iv) l-band

(a) MO. B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

 4. Complete the following paragraph by selecting the correct option.
Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones. Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three bones (i). (ii) and (iii) At the point of fusion of the above bones is a cavity called (iv) to which the thigh bone articulates. The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form the pubic symphysis containing (v). cartilage.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(a) clavicle scapula sternum glenoid hyaline
(b) ulna radius tarsal acromion fibrous
(c) sacrum scapula clavicle glenoid yellow
(d) ilium ischium pubis acetabulum fibrous

5. Read the statements regarding muscle proteins.
(i) Actin is a thin filament and is made up of two F-actins.
(ii) The complex protein, tropomyosin is distributed at regular intervals on the troponin.
(iii) Myosin is a thick filament which is also a polymerized protein.
(iv) The globular head of meromyosin consists of light meromyosin (LMM).
Of the above statements,
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
6. When EDTA is injected into the muscles, it combines with Ca++ ions and then
(a) contraction occurs
(b) little contraction occurs

(c) no contraction occurs
(d) none of these.
7. Which of the following sarcomeres is labelled correctly?

sacromeres

8. Choose the correct order of muscle contraction from starting to completion.
(a) Stimuli -> Neurotransmitter Release of Ca2+ -» Cross bridge formation —> Excitation of T-system
Sliding of actin filament
(b) Stimuli -» Neurotransmitter Excitation of T-system -» Release of Ca2+ —> Cross bridge formation Sliding of actin filament -> ‘H’ band diminishes
(c) Stimuli Excitation of T-system Neurotransmitter secretion Cross bridge formation -» Sliding of actin filament -» H-band diminishes
(d) Stimuli —> Neurotransmitter Cross bridge formation —» Excitation of T-system -» Sliding of actin filament
9. Which of the following is/are not correctly matched pairs?

(i) Ball and socket joint – Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(ii) Pivot joint – Between carpal and metacarpal
(iii) Saddle joint – Between atlas and axis
(iv) Gliding joint – Between the carpals
(v) Fibrous joint – In flat skull bones
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (v) only (d) (ii) only

10. The given figure is related with myosin monomer (meromyosin). Identify the parts labelled from A to C and select the correct option.

myosin-monomer-mermomyosin111. Skull region articulates with the superior region of the A with the help of _B_ occipital condyles; that is the reason human skull is called C skull.
Fill in the blanks A, B and C.
(a) A-vertebral column, B-two, C-dicondylic
(b) A-vertebral column, B-three, C-dicondylic
(c) A-vertebral column, B-one, C- dicondylic
(d) A-vertebral column, B-one, C-monocondylic
12. Structure responsible for formation of sigmoid notch is
(a) olecranon process of humerus
(b) olecranon process of femur
(c) olecranon process of radius-ulna
(d) olecranon process of tibia-fibula.
13. Gout is a disease that affects the joints and leads to arthritis. It is associated with an abnormality of
(a) pyrimidine metabolism
(b) purine metabolism
(c) fat metabolism
(d) protein metabolism.
14. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding a normal human?
(i) The skull is dicondylic.
(ii) Metacarpals are five in numbers.
(iii) Patella is a cup-shaped bone covering the knee dorsally.
(iv) Scapula is a large triangular flat bone, situated on the ventral side of the thorax.
(v) The pelvic girdle has two coxal bones.
(a) (i) and (v) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (v) (d) (iii) and (iv)
15. Pick the true statements with reference to human beings.
I. Vertebral column consists of 26 bones
II. Vertebra is dorsally placed.
III. Neural canal in vertebra is the passage for spinal cord.
IV. Neural canal is ventrally placed.
The option with all correct statement is
(a) II, III and IV (b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III
16. In children, the bones are more flexible and brittle because their bones have
(a) large quantity of salts and little organic substances
(b) large quantity of organic substances and little salts
(c) well developed Haversian system
(d) large number of osteoblasts.
17. The first vertebra, atlas by its articulation with occipital condyle of head facilitates
(a) movement in one plane
(b) movement in two planes
(c) movement in all planes
(d) movement in three planes.
18. Electron microscopic studies of the sarcomeres have revealed that during muscle contraction
(a) the width of A-band remains constant
(b) the width of the H-zone becomes longer
(c) the width of l-band increases
(d) the diameter of the fibre increases.
19. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Smooth muscles are found in urina(b) A striated muscle is a syncytium i.e., a multinudeate structure.
(c) The cytoplasm of striated muscle is called endoplasm.
(d) The plasma membrane and ER of striated muscles are called sarcolemma and sarcoplasmic reticulum respectively.
20. Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description?

Structures Description
(a) Tibia and fibula Both form parts of knee joint
(b) Cartilage and cornea No blood supply but do
require oxygen for respiratory need
(c) Shoulder joint and elbow joint Ball and socket type of joint
(d) Premolars and molars 20 in all and 3 rooted

21.Match Column-I with Column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II
Skeletal Part Number of Bones
A Cranium (i) 29
B Skull (ii) 8
C Face (iii) 14
D Hind Limbs (iv) 24
E Ribs (v) 30

(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(v), E-(iv)
(b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(v), E-(iv)
(c) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(d) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), A-(i)

22. Heart beat is controlled by a nodal tissue which is made up of specialised cardiac muscles, called
(a) Purkinje fibres (b) myonemes
(c) collagen fibres (d) telodendria.
23. Consider the following statements. Which one of the following is correct?
I. In man, vertebral column has 33 bones organized as 28 bones.
II. Pelvic girdle is made up of two fused bones only.
III. Osteoporosis is characterized by microarchitectural deterioration of the bone.
(a) I only is correct (b) II only is correct (c) III only is correct (d) I only is incorrect
24. The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except
(a) generation of end-plate potential
(b) release of calcium from troponin
(c) formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin
(d) hydrolysis of ATP to ADP.
25. The coxal bone of the pelvic girdle is formed by the fusion of
(a) ilium, ischium and pubis
(b) scapula and clavicle
(c) ilium and scapula
(d) ilium, scapula and ischium.
26. In the pelvic girdle of man A, B, C, D and E respectively

pelvic-girdle(a) A – pubis, B – acetabulum, C – ilium, D – ischium, E – pubic symphysis
(b) A – ilium, B – acetabulum, C – pubis, D – ischium, E – pubic symphysis
(c) A – ischium, B – acetabulum, C – pubis, D- ilium, E – pubic symphysis
(d) A – ilium, B – pubis, C – acetabulum, D – pubic symphysis, E-ischium
27. The number of vertebrae present in cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccyx regions respectively are
(a) 12,7,5,1,1 (b) 1,7,5,12,1
(c) 7,5,1,12,1 (d) 7,12,5,1,1.
28. In procoelous vertebrae
(a) anterior centrum is convex
(b) anterior centrum is concave
(c) anterior centrum is saddle-shaped
(d) posterior centrum is concave.
29. Match Column-I with Column-Hand select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-II Column-II
A Amoeboid movement (i)Limbs
B Ciliary movement (ii) Leucocytes
C Flagellar Movement (iii)Trachea
D Muscular movement (iv)Spermatozoa

130. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work, is caused by
(a) a decrease in the supply of oxygen
(b) minor wear and tear of muscle fibres
(c) the depletion of glucose
(d) the accumulation of lactic acid.
31. Which of the following movements in man are directly concerned with locomotion?
(a) Bending of arm at elbow
(b) Rotation of head of femur in acetabulum
(c) Peristaltic movements
(d) Contraction of the heart
32. Identify the non-matching pair.

Pair of skeletal parts Category
(a) Sternum and ribs Axial skeleton
(b) Clavicle and glenoid cavity Pelvic girdle
(c) Humerus and ulna Appendicular skeleton
(d) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles

33. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones are directly contributing in this movement?
(a) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals
(b) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
(c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula
(d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
34. Given diagram shows the right pectoral girdle and upper arm (frontal view) of human female. Identify A to G and choose the correct option.

right-pectoral-girdle(a) A – 1st vertebra, B – Scapula, C – Humerus, D-Radius, E – Ulna, F – Carpals, G – Metacarpals
(b) A – Scapula, B – Clavicle, C – Humerus, D – Radius, E – Ulna, F – Carpals, G – Metacarplals
(c) A – Ilium, B – Scapula, C – Humerus, D – Radius, E – Ulna, F – Carpals, G – Metacarpals.
(d) A – Clavicle, B – Scapula, C – Humerus, D – Radius, E – Ulna, F – Carpals, G – Metacarpals.

35. Match the following columns and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-I
A Pair of muscles act in opposition to each other 1 Synergist
B Pair of muscles act together 2 Antagonist
C Muscles that act more powerfully during any given movement 3 Prime movers

38. The gliding joints are important for gliding movements. One example of such joint is between the
(a) zygapophyses of adjacent vertebrae
(b) humerus and glenoid cavity
(c) occipital condyle and odontoid process
(d) femur and tibia fibula.
39. The given figure shows an actin (thin) myofilament. Identify the labelled parts A, B, C, D and E and select the correct option.

actin-myofilament1 40. Scapula is a triangular bone situated in the
(a) dorsal part of thorax between 2nd and 7th ribs
(b) ventral part of thorax between 2nd and 7th ribs
(c) medial part of thorax between 2nd and 7th ribs
(d) none of the above.

41. Refer to the given figures, (A, B and C) and arrange them in an order of first class lever, second class lever and third class lever.

142. What prevents a drop in muscle fiber ATP concentration during the first few seconds of intense contraction?
(a) Because cross-bridges are pre-energised, ATP is not needed until several cross-bridges cycle have been completed.
(b) ADP is rapidly converted back to ATP by creatine phosphate.
(c) Glucose is metabolized in glycolysis, producing large quantities of ATP.
(d) The mitochondria immediately begin oxidative phosphorylation.
43. In the skeleton positioned in the anatomical position, which of the following structures faces anteriorly?
(a) Spinous process of the scapula
(b) Subscapular fossa
(c) Infraspinous fossa
(d) Linea aspera of the femur
44. In the diagram of section of hyaline cartilage, the different parts have been indicated by alphabets. Choose the answer in which these alphabets correctly match with the parts they indicate.
hyaline-cartilage(a) A – Perichondrium, B – Chondrocyte, C – Lacuna, D – Chondrin.
(b) A – Chondrocyte, B – Lacuna, C – Perichondrium, D – Chondrin.
(c) A – Chondrin, B – Chondrocyte, C – Lacuna, D – Perichondrium.
(d) A – Chondrin, B – Lacuna, C – Chondrocyte, D – Perichondrium.
45. Refer to the given graph carefully and answer the following question.

1Which of the labelled parts on the graph represents rigor  mortis?
(a) X (b)W (c) Z (d) Y
46. Which is a false statement about skeletal muscle structure?
(a) A myofibril is composed of multiple muscle fibers.
(b) Most skeletal muscles attach to bones by connective tissue tendons.
(c) Each end of a thick filament is surrounded by six thin filaments.
(d) A cross-bridge is a portion of the myosin molecule.
47. Consider the following statements each with one or two blanks.
(i) Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to the accumulation of (1) due to anaerobic breakdown of glycogen in them, causing fatigue.
(ii) The globular head of meromyosin is an active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for (2) and active sites for (3).
(iii) This central part of thick filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is called the (4).
Which one of the following options correctly fills the given blanks?
(a) (1) – glucose, (4) – A band
(b) (1) – pyruvic acid, (2) – troponin, (3) – myosin
(c) (1) – lactic acid (2) – ATP, (3) – actin, (4) – H zone
(d) (1) – lactic acid, (4) -1 band
48. Given below is a randomly arranged list of events that occur at the neuromuscular junction to trigger muscle contraction.
(i) Receptor sites on sarcolemma
(ii) Nerve impulse
(iii) Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum
(iv) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released
(v) Sarcomere shortens
(vi) Synaptic cleft
(vii) Spread of impulses over sarcolemma on T-tubules
Which of the following gives the correct sequence of these steps?
(a) (ii), (iv), (i), (vi), (vii), (iii), (v)
(b) (ii), (iv), (vi), (i), (vii), (iii), (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi), (vii)
(d) (vii), (vi), (v), (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
49. Which statement about the structure of skeletal muscle is true ?
(a) The sarcoplasm of the muscle cell is contained within the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(b) When a muscle contracts, the A bands of the sarcomere lengthen.
(c) When a muscle contracts, the H bands of the sarcomere shorten.
(d) The light bands of the sarcomere are the regions where actin and myosin filaments overlap.
50. Long distance, competitive runners are usually small and wiry and run more slowly than sprinters, who run much shorter distances and generally have a large bulk of muscles. Which of the following best explains the differences between the two types of runners?
(a) Long distance runners run more slowly because lactic acid quickly builds up in their muscles and causes fatigue. Sprinters do not run for a
long enough for lactic acid to build up in their muscles.
(b) The large muscles of sprinters increases the oxygen supply to each muscle, preventing lactic acid from forming.
(c) Sprinters do not run for long enough for sufficient lactic acid to build up in their muscles; therefore they can have large muscles for more power. By being lighter and running more slowly, long distance runners ensure that their muscles receive enough oxygen for aerobic respiration.
(d) Sprinters run faster because their large muscles have more blood running through them to stop anaerobic respiration from taking place. Long distance runners run more slowly because they are using the energy from anaerobic respiration, which does not produce as much ATP as aerobic respiration.

Answers 

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (0 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (c 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (c)  

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