Co ordination compounds – MCQs 3

1) @ The complex [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 will give a white precipitate with
a)
b)
c)
d) None

2) Which will not give the usual test for iron?
a)
b)
c)
d)

3) The value of x in the complex Fe(CO)x is
a) 5
b) 4
c) 8
d) 3

4) The hybridisation in Ni(CO)4 is
a) sp
b)
c)
d)

5) The colour of FeSO4 .(NH4)2SO4 .6H2O is
a) Red
b) White
c) Green
d) Blue

6) The number of ions formed in aqueous solution by the compound [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 7

7) In complexes, the primary valency of the metal is always
a) Ionic
b) Covalent
c) Zero
d) None

8) Which of the following cation does not form an amine complex with excess of ammonia ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

9) Complexes with bidentate ligands are called.
a) Ligands
b) Chelates
c) Complexes
d) None

10) The outer complexes are generally formed by
a) Strong ligands
b) Weak ligands
c) Neutral ligands
d) None

11) Which of the following will exhibit cis-trans isomerisation ?
a)
b)
c) MABCD
d)

12) All ligands are
a) Lewis acids
b) Lewis bases
c) Neutral
d) None

13) The shape of the cobalt hexamine cation, which has its central cobalt atom surrounded by six ammonia molecules is
a) Tetrahedral
b) Octahedral
c) Square planar
d) Trigonal

14) The complex [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 furnishes
a) 5 ions
b) 6 ions
c) 4 ions
d) 2 ions

15) Which of the following is not an organometallic compounds ?
a) Trimethyl boron
b) Trimethyl orthoborate
c) Diethyl magnesium
d) Butyl ethyl mercury

16) Which one of the following will give a white precipitate with AgNO3 in aqueous solution ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

17) @ Which of the following has tetrahedral geometry ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

18) The complex [Co(NH3)3Cl3] is
a) Neutral
b) Cationic
c) Anionic
d) None

19) A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when
a) It is a small molecule
b) It has an unshared electron pair
c) It is a negatively charged ion
d) It is a positively charged ion

20) The metal hydroxide which is soluble in excess of NH4OH is
a)
b)
c)
d)

21) The total number of ions produced when one molecule of [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 undergoes ionisation is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

22) Complexation is shown by
a) Ag
b) Au
c) Cu
d) All

23) Ionisation of K[Ag(CN)2] will give
a)
b) KCN and AgCN
c)
d) None

24) Turnbulls blue is
a) Ferricyanide
b) Ferrous ferricyanide
c) Ferrous cyanide
d) Ferri-ferrocyanide

25) The probable formula for Prussian blue is
a)
b)
c)
d)

26) In which solvent will AgBr have highest solubility ?
a)
b)
c) Pure water
d)

27) Which of the following is not true for a ligand-metal complex ?
a) The larger the ligand, the more stable is the metal-ligand complex
b) A highly charged ligand forms stronger bonds
c) The larger the permanent dipole moment of the ligand, the more stable is the bond
d) The greater the ionisation potential of the central metal, the stronger the bond

28) In haemoglobin the iron is in the following oxidation state:
a) +2
b) +3
c) +1
d) +4

29) The oxidation state of Ni in the [Ni(CN)4]2- ion is
a) -2
b) +2
c) +4
d) 0

30) The oxidation number of nickel in K2[Ni(CN)4] is
a) -2
b) +2
c) -1
d) 0

31) The hybridisation of Mn in hexacyano-manganate (II) is sp3d2. The number of unpaired electrons in it is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 3

32) The compound which does not show paramagnetism is
a)
b)
c)
d)

33) The EAN of Cr (Z = 24) in [Cr(NH3)6]Cl2 is
a) 35
b) 36
c) 27
d) 34

34) Prussian blue is formed when
a)
b)
c)
d)

35) Ligands in a complex salt are
a) Anions linked by co-ordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion
b) Cations linked by co-ordinate bonds to a central metal atom or ion
c) Molecules linked by co-ordinate bonds to a Central metal or ion
d) Ions or molecules linked by co-ordinate bonds to a central atom or ion

36) The co-ordination number of chromium in the complex [Cr(NH3)2(H2O)2]Cl3 is
a) 4
b) 6
c) 2
d) 3

37) Which of the following is a monodentate ligand ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All the above

38) Which of the following act as catalysts ?
a)
b)
c)
d) Both (a) and (b)

39) The formation of a complex compound can be detected by the
a) Change in colour
b) Change in solubility
c) Change in pH
d) All are correct

40) Which of the following is not correct in the case of [Co(NH3)6]3+ complex ?
a) It is octahedral in shape
b)
c) It is diamagnetic
d) All are correct

41) Which of the following is not correct in the case of [Ni(CN)4]2- complex ?
a)
b) It has square planar shape
c) It is diamagnetic
d) All are correct

42) Which is not correct in the case of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ complex ?
a)
b) Paramagnetic
c) Square planar
d) All are correct

43) Which of the following is correct in the case of [NiCl4]2- complex ?
a)
b) Paramagnetic
c) Tetrahedral
d) All are correct

44) Which is correct in the case of [Fe(CN)6]4- complex ?
a) Diamagnetic
b) Octahedral
c)
d) All are correct

45) Which is correct in the case of [Fe(CN)6]3- complex ?
a)
b) Paramagnetic
c) One unpaired electron
d) All are correct

46) The shape of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is square planar. Cu in this complex is
a)
b)
c)
d)

47) The oxidation state of Ag in Tollens reagent is
a) +1
b) -1
c) 0
d) +2

48) The magnetic behaviour of the complexes K4[Fe(CN)6] and K3[Fe(CN)6] is respectively
a) Paramagnetic, diamagnetic
b) Diamagnetic, paramagnetic
c) Diamagnetic, ferromagnetic
d) Diamagnetic

49) The stability constants of some reactions are given below. Predict which of the ligands is strongest.
a)
b)
c)
d)

50) The planar complex (MABCD) gives
a) Two geometrical isomers
b) Two optical isomers
c) Three geometrical isomers
d) None

51) The effective atomic number of Fe (Z = 26) in Fe (CO)5 is
a) 26
b) 34
c) 54
d) 36

52) Which of the following complexes have tetrahedral shape (sp3 hybridisation of central atom) ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

53) Which of the following complexes have octahedral shape due to sp3 d2 hybridisation of the central atom ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

54) Which of the following complexes has a square planar shape due to dsp2 hybridisation ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

55) Which of the following is a complex ?
a) Trimethyl aluminium
b) Ferrocene
c) Diethyl zinc
d) Nickel carbonyl

56) The formula of ferrocene is
a)
b)
c)
d)

57) The number of precipitable halide ions [Pt(NH3)CI2Br]Cl is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1

58) EDTA is
a) 3-co-ordinate
b) 2-co-ordinate
c) 4-co-ordinate
d) 6-co-ordinate

59) The co-ordination number of cobalt in Co(en)2Br2]Cl2 is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

60) A blue solution of CuSO4 becomes darker when treated with ammonia solution, because
a) the ammonia molecule replaces the water molecule in solution
b) Ammonia is a stronger ligand than water
c) Ammonia forms a stable complex
d) None of these

61) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II) is the compound
a)
b)
c)
d)

62) The formula of ruthenium carbonyl is
a)
b)
c)
d)

63) Which of the following shows only the co-ordination number 4 in complexes ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

64) Which of the following shows only the co-ordination number 6 ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

65) Which of the following statements about the coordination number of a cation is true ?
a) Most metal ions exhibit only a single characteristic co-ordination number
b) The co-ordination number is equal to the number of ligands bonded to the metal atom
c) For most cations, the co-ordination number depends on the size, structure and charge of the ligands
d) None of these

66) For which of the following transition metal ions are low spin complexes possible ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

67) Which of the following cations forms an acidic aqueous solution ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct.

68) Which of the following ions produces a small crystal field splitting (a weak ligand field) ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

69) Which of the following ligands produce a high crystal field splitting (a strong ligand field) ?
a) CO
b)
c)
d) All are correct

70) Complexes with halide ligands are generally
a) High spin complexes
b) Low spin complexes
c) Both
d) None

71) Complexes with CN ligands are usually
a) High spin complexes
b) Low spin complexes
c) Both
d) None

72) The tetrahedral crystal field splitting is only ____ of the octahedral splitting
a) 1/9
b) 2/9
c) 4/9
d) 5/9

73) The effective atomic rule is less likely to apply if the metal – ligand bond
a) Is extremely weak
b) Has a covalent character
c) Has a large tendency towards ionic character
d) None is correct

74) Which of the following orders is correct for the spectrochemical series of ligands ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

75) Which of the following is a low spin complex ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

76) Which of the following is a high spin complex ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

77) The hybridisation of Cr in [Cr(H2O)6]3+ is
a)
b)
c)
d)

78) Which one of the following octahedral complexes is diamagnetic ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

79) Metal carbonyls are organo metallic compounds in which carbon monoxide acts as the ligand. The metal-carbon bond in metal carbonyls possesses both sigma and pi character. Which of the following metal carbonyls is diamagnetic and has tetrahedral geometry ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

80) A cobaltamine has the formula Co(NH3)6 Cl3. With AgNO3 solution, one third of the chloride is precipitated. The complex shows cis – trans isomerism. It can have the structure :
a)
b)
c)
d)

81) The colour of an aqueous solution of CrCl3 varies from violet to green depending upon concentration. This variation is due to the formation of
a)
b)
c)
d) All of these

82) Which of the following ions gives no change when aqueous alkali is added dropwise ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

83) A ligand is essentially a Lewis base. Which one of the following is a polydentate ligand ?
a)
b) CO
c)
d) E.D.T.A

84) In complexes, the ligands are linked to the central metal atom or ion by
a) Dative bonds
b) Ionic bonds
c) H-bonds
d) van der Waals forces

85) Which one of the following complexes is not linear ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

86) A hydrate of Cr, Cr(H2O)6 Cl3 , gives 3 moles of AgCl when treated with excess solution. Its structure is
a)
b)
c)
d)

87) Octahedral complex (C.N = 6) shows cis-trans isomerism if they are of the type
a)
b)
c)
d)

88) A typical example of a sandwiched compound is
a) Ferrocene
b)
c)
d)

89) Wilkinsons catalyst is
a)
b) Used in the hydrogenation of alkenes
c) a homogeneous catalyst
d) All the above

90) The ultimate product formed by hydrated iron (III) ions in an aqueous solution of pH= 5 is
a)
b)
c)
d)

91) Which one of the following salts does not produce a complex ion M(H2O)2+6 when dissolved in excess of water ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

92) In which of the following ions is the transition metal not exhibiting its highest common oxidation state ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

93) Ferrocene is an example of
a) a sandwiched complex
b) A pi-bonded complex
c) A complex in which all the five carbon atoms of cyclopentadiene anion are bound to the metal
d) All the above

94) Which one of the following is not a sigma bonded complex ?
a)
b)
c) n-butyllithium
d) Dibenzene chromium

95) Which of the following is not an organometallic compound ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

96) Geometrical isomerism is not possible in
a)
b)
c) MABCD
d) All

97) Haemoglobin is the complex of
a)
b)
c)
d)

98) Chlorophyll is the complex of
a)
b)
c)
d)

99) The oxidation state of the ligand in a complex is
a) Zero
b) Green
c) Always positive
d) Zero or negative

100) The stability of a complex depends on the
a) Basicity of the ligands
b) Charge on the central metal ion
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None


Answer

Co-ordination Compounds – 2

1) Nitroglycerine is absorbed in porous dried clay called Kieselguhr and commercially used as a controlled explosive called.
a) Gun powder
b) T.N.T
c) Dynamite
d) Napalm

2) In compounds having coordination number 4, two principal geometries encountered are
a) Linear & bent
b) Trigonal planar and trigonal pyramidal
c) Cis form and trans form
d) Tetrahedral and square planar

3) The ion which exhibits a green colour is
a)
b)
c)
d)

4) Lanthanides form complexes with
a) Monodentate ligands
b) Bidentate ligands
c) Chelating agents
d) Simple anions

5) The Effective Atomic Number of Cu in [Cu(SCN)6]3- is
a) 35
b) 38
c) 34
d) 37

6) The co-ordination number and oxidation state of Al in the complex [Al(H2O)4(OH)2] are respectively
a) 5, +3
b) 6, +3
c) 6, +2
d) 4, +4

7) The co-ordination number and oxidation state of Cr in K3Cr(C2O4)3 are respectively
a) 4 and +2
b) 6 and +3
c) 3 and +3
d) 3 and 0

8) The complex compound of nickel in which Ni is in dsp2 hybridised state is
a)
b)
c)
d) None of these

9) Which of the following is an example of dsp2 hybridisation?
a)
b)
c)
d)

10) The total number of isomers for the complex compound [CuII(NH3)4] [PtIICl4] is
a) 4
b) 3
c) 6
d) 5

11) A co-ordination complex compound of cobalt has a molecular formula containing five ammonia molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of this compound produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution. On reacting this solution with excess of silver nitrate solution, two moles of AgCl are precipitated. The ionic formula of this compound would be
a)
b)
c)
d)

12) The geometry of Ni(CO)4 and Ni(PPH3)2Cl2 are
a) Both square planar
b) Tetrahedral and square planar respectively
c) Both tetrahedral
d) Square planar and tetrahedral respectively

13) Which is not a bonded complex?
a)
b) Ferrocene
c) Dibenzene chromium
d) Tetraethyl lead

14) Which is paramagnetic?
a)
b)
c)
d)

15) The formula dichlorobis (urea) copper (II) is.
a)
b)
c)
d)

16) Which of the following has a square planar structure?
a)
b)
c)
d) All of these

17) In which of the following compounds does the central metal atom obey the EAN  rule?
a) All
b)
c)
d)

18) Which of the following is paramagnetic?
a)
b)
c)
d)

19) Which of the following is an organometallic compound?
a)
b)
c)
d)

20) Which of the following is an organo metallic compound?
a) Lithium methoxide
b) Lithium acetate
c) Lithium dimethyl amide
d) Methyl lithium

21) The number of enantiomers of the compound CH3CHBrCHBr – CH3 is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4

22) Which of the following are organometallic compounds ?
a)
b)
c)
d) Both (b) and (c)

23) The number of geometrical isomers from [Co(NH3)3 (NO2)3] is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) None

24) Which of the following compounds is not coloured?
a)
b)
c)
d)

25) The unpaired electrons in Ni(CO)4 are
a) Zero
b) One
c) Three
d) Four

26) Which of the following complex will show geometrical as well as optical isomerism [En = ethylene diamine] ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

27) The oxidation state of Fe in the brown complex, Fe[(H2O)5NO]SO4 is
a) + 1
b) + 2
c) + 3
d) + 4

28) Among [Ni(CN)4]2-, [NiCl4]2- and [Ni(CO)4]
a)
b)
c)
d) None

29) The EAN of platinum in potassium hexachloroplatinate (IV) is
a) 46
b) 86
c) 36
d) 84

30) The EAN of Ni in K2[Ni(CN)4] is
a) 35
b) 34
c) 36
d) 38

31) The hybridisation of Fe in K4[Fe(CN)6] complex is
a)
b)
c)
d)

32) The [Cr(NH3)6]3+ ion is
a) Paramagnetic
b) Diamagnetic
c) Square planar
d) Tetrahedral

33) The oxidation number of Fe in K4[Fe(CN)6] is
a) +3
b) +2
c) +1
d) -3

34) Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2- and [Ni(Cl)4]2- ,
a)
b)
c)
d)

35) The number of ions formed in aqueous solution by the compound  [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) None

36) The co-ordination number of Co in [Co(NH3)6]2+ is
a) 4
b) 6
c) 5
d) 8

37) The charge on cobalt in [Co(CN)6]3- is
a) -6
b) +3
c) -3
d) +6

38) The number of isomers possible for the square planar complex K2[PdClBr2SCN] is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

39) Geometrical isomerism is found in co-ordination compounds having the co-ordination number
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4 (Tetrahedral)
d) 6

40) The shape of the complex Ag(NH3)+2 is
a) Octahedral
b) Square planar
c) Tetrahedral
d) Linear

41) A square planar complex is represented as
a) Geometrical isomers
b) Optical isomers
c) Linkage isomers
d) None

42) Which of the following is non-ionisable?
a)
b)
c)
d)

43) In which of the following complexes is the oxidation state of metal zero?
a)
b)
c)
d)

44) Which of the following complexes shows ionisation isomerism?
a)
b)
c)
d)

45) The IUPAC name of K3[Fe(CN)6] is
a) Potassium ferrocyanide
b) Potassium hexaferrocynate
c) Potassium hexaferrocynate (II)
d) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

46) Which among the following ions has the highest paramagnetism?
a)
b)
c)
d)

47) The number of d-electrons in [Cr(H2O)6]3+ is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

48) Which one of the following shows the maximum paramagnetic behaviour?
a)
b)
c)
d)

49) Which type of isomerism is shown by the complex compounds [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br ?
a) Ionic
b) Linkage
c) Co-ordinate
d) Optical

50) The effective atomic number of Cr (Z = 24) in [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is
a) 35
b) 27
c) 33
d) 36

51) The fraction of chlorine precipitated by AgNO3 solution from [Cu(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 is
a) 1/2
b) 2/3
c) 1/3
d) 1/4

52) K3CoF6 is a high spin complex. What is the hybrid state of the Co atom in this complex?
a)
b)
c)
d)

53) Nickel has the highest oxidation state in
a)
b)
c)
d)

54) [(C6H5)2Pd(SCN)2] and [(C6H5)2 Pd (NCS)2] are
a) Linkage isomers
b) Co-ordination isomers
c) lonisation isomers
d) Geometrical isomers

55) Which of the following compounds would exhibit co-ordination isomerism?
a)
b)
c)
d)

56) Hexachloro cobaltate (III) ion is found to be a high spin complex. The hybridisation of cobalt in it is
a)
b)
c)
d)

57) The type of isomerism shown by [Co (en) 2(NCS) 2] Cl and  [Co(en)2(NCS)Cl]NCS
a) Co-ordinate
b) lonisation
c) Linkage
d) All the above

58) Hexafluoro ferrate (III) ion is an outer orbital complex. The number of unpaired electrons present in it is
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

59) [Fe(CN)6]4- ion is
a) Octahedral
b) Square planar
c) Bipyramidal
d) Tetrahedron

60) The central ion and ligand in the complex K2[Cd(CN)4] are respectively
a)
b)
c)
d)

61) A complex of platinum, ammonia and chlorine produces 4 ions per molecule in the solution. The structure of the complex may be
a)
b)
c)
d)

62) The possible number of isomers for the complex [MCl2Br2]SO4 is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5

63) The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3] is
a) + 1
b) + 2
c) + 3
d) + 4

64) The number of electrons gained by Pd in [PdCl4]2- is
a) 8
b) 4
c) 10
d) Zero

65) Which type of isomerism is exhibited by [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2 and [Co(NH3)4ClNO2]Cl ?
a) Geometrical
b) Optical
c) Linkage
d) lonisation

66) Which complex has square planar structure?
a)
b)
c)
d)

67) The co-ordination number of copper in cuprammonium sulphate is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6

68) Which one of the following is not expected to show paramagnetism?
a)
b)
c)
d)

69) The oxidation number of Fe in the compound Na4[Fe(CN)5NO]SO4.2H2O is
a) 0
b) + 1
c) + 2
d) + 3

70) In triethylenediamine cobalt (III) chloride, the co-ordination number of cobalt is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 7

71) The number of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] are
a) 0
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

72) Which exhibits higher molar conductivity?
a)
b)
c)
d)

73) The EAN of Cr in [Cr(SCN)6]3- is
a) 35
b) 33
c) 34
d) 37

74) Which ligand is capable of forming low spin as well as high spin complexes?
a) CO
b)
c)
d)

75) In which of the following ions does the metal atom have an EAN = 36?
a)
b)
c)
d)

76) The complex that violates the EAN is
a) potassium ferrocyanide
b) potassium ferricyanide
c) Nickel carbonyl
d) Cobalt (III) hexaammine chloride

77) The IUPAC name of Pt(NH3)5(Br)(NO2)Cl]Cl is
a) Triaminechlorobromonitroplatinium (IV) chloride
b) Triaminebromonitrochloroplatinium (IV) chloride
c) Triaminebromochloronitroplatinium (IV) chloride
d) Triaminenitrochlorobromoplatinium (IV) chloride

78) Which of the following is a high spin complex?
a)
b)
c)
d) All the above

79) The number of ions formed when copper ammonium sulphate is dissolved in water is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3

80) The oxidation state of Mn in its oxo-complex species [Mo2O4(C2H4)2 (H2O)2]2- is
a) + 2
b) + 3
c) +4
d) + 5

81) The co-ordination number of copper in the complex formed by adding excess of NH3 to CuSO4 solution is.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 6
d) 5

82) The compound [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]Cl2 and [Co (ONO)(NH3)5]Cl2 are examples of
a) Geometrical isomers
b) Linkage isomers
c) Ligand isomers
d) lonisation isomers

83) The complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ has a
a) Tetrahedral configuration with one unpaired electron configuration
b) Square planar configuration with one unpaired electron
c) Tetrahedral configuration with all electrons paired
d) Square planar configuration with all electrons paired

84) Cis-trans isomerism is found in square planar complexes of the molecular formula (a and b are the monodentate ligands)
a)
b)
c)
d)

85) Transition elements form complexes readily because of the
a) Same size of cation
b) Vacant d-orbitals
c) Large ionic charge
d) All

86) The structure of iron pentacarbonyl is
a) Square planar
b) Trigonal bipyramid
c) Triangular
d) None

87) The groups satisfying the secondary valencies of a cation in a complex are called
a) Ligands
b) Radicals
c) Primary valencies
d) None

88) The co-ordination number of Fe in K3[Fe(CN)6] is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

89) AgO in Ag (II) complex is
a) Diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Ferromagnetic
d) None

90) The complex forming tendency increases with the
a) Increase in size of the cation
b) Decrease in size of the cation
c) Increase in size of the anion
d) None

91) Which statement is not correct?
a)
b) Carbonyl complexes are usually formed with transition metals
c) All transition metals form monometallic carbonyls
d)

92) In [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl the ligands are
a)
b)
c)
d)

93) Which ligand is expected to be bidentate?
a)
b)
c)
d)

94) Which will give a white precipitate with AgNO3 in aqueous solution?
a)
b)
c)
d)

95) The structure of the [Cu(H2O)4]2+ ion is
a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral
c) Octahedral
d) Distorted rectangle

96) The two compounds sulphatopentamine cobalt (III) bromide and sulphato pentamine cobalt (III) chloride represent
a) Linkage isomerism
b) lonisation isomerism
c) Co-ordination isomerism
d) No isomerism

97) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] possesses
a) Square planar geometry
b) Tetrahedral geometry
c) Octahedral geometry
d) None

98) The tendency of the transition metals to form complexes is not explained by the
a) Small size of the metal ion
b) Large ionic or nuclear charge
c) Low basicity of metal ions
d) Non-availability of d-orbitals

99) The oxidation state of Fe in Na3[Fe(NH3)(CN)5]2H2O is
a) – 1
b) + 1
c) + 2
d) 3

100) Which is a colourless complex?
a)
b)
c)
d)


Answer

Co-ordination Compounds – 1

1) The composition of the brown ring complex formed during the detection of the nitrate ion is
a) [Fe(H2O)5 NO2] SO4
b) [Fe(H2O)5 NO]SO4
c) [Fe(H2O)5NO3]SO4
d) [Fe(H2O)5 NO3SO4

2) Which among the following is a bidentate ligand?
a) CO32-
b) SO4
c) -CN
d) none of the above

3) The number of six co-ordination complex compounds formed when PtCI4 reacts with NH3 is
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3

4) In which of the following Metal Carbon bonds are both sigma and p bonds present together?
a) (C2H5)2 Zn
b) Fe -(h5 C2H5)2
c) Ni(CO)4
d) Grignards reagent

5) In tetra-ammine dichloro chromium(III) ions the charge carried by the complex ion is
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

6) In CoCl3. 6 NH3 if all the primary valencies are satisfied by chloride ions and all the secondary valencies by chloride ions and all the secondary valencies by NH3 molecules, the number of ions formed in solution will be
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3

7) The ion which gives blood red colouration with Fe3+ ion is
a) CN
b) SCN
c) CNS
d) NO3

8) Which of the following is a square plaaer complex?
a) Ni(CN)42-
b) Ni(CO)4
c) NiCI42-
d) [Ni(H2O)6]2+

9) The IUPAC name of the complex K4[Fe(CN)6] is
a) potassium hexa cyano iron (II)
b) potassium hexa cyano iron(III)
c) tetra potassium hexa cyano iron(ii)
d) potassium hexa cyano ferrate(ii)

10) What is the co-ordination number of copper in CuSO4. 5H2O?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

11) The isomerism exhibited by [Co(NH3)5NO2]2+ is
a) salt isomerism
b) co-ordination isomerism
c) hydration isomerism
d) hydration isomerism

12) The correct order of stability of the following complexes Cd CI42- (A), Cd Br42- (B) CdI42- (C) Cd (CN)62- (D) is
a) A > B > C > D
b) D > C > B > A
c) A < B = C > D
d) A= B = C < D

13) Wilkinson’s catalyst is
a) [Ni (NH3)6]2+
b) K [Pt CI3 C2H4]
c) [(Ph3P)3 Rh] CI
d) Ni (CO)4

14) Which of the following is an organo-metallic compound.?
a) carbide
b) cyanide
c) haemoglobin
d) none of the above

15) Which is not an organo metallic compound
a) (C2H5)2 Zn
b) (C3H7O) 4 Ti
c) C6H5Ti(OCH3)3
d) CH3-B (OCH3)2

16) Which of the following is a component of ruby ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

17) Which complex is expected to show optical activity?
a)
b)
c)
d)

18) Which complex is diamagnetic?
a)
b)
c)
d) None

19) For which transition metal ions are low spin complexes possible?
a)
b)
c)
d) All of these

20) Which will give Fe3+ ions in solution?
a)
b)
c)
d)

21) Which is the strongest field ligand?
a)
b)
c)
d) En

22) The IUPAC name of Na3[Co(ONO)6] is
a) Sodium cobaltinitrite.
b) Sodium hexanitritocobaltate (III)
c) Sodium hexanitrocobalt (III)
d) Sodium hexanitritocobaltate (II)

23) The IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)4NO2Cl]SO4 is
a) Chloronitroplatinum (IV) sulphate
b) Tetramminechloronitritoplatinum (IV) sulphate
c) Chloronitrotetra-amine platinum (IV) sulphate
d) Platinum (IV) tetra-amine nitrochlorosulphate

24) [Co(NH3)6]Cl is called
a) Hexamine cobalt (III) chloride
b) Amino cobalt chloride (III)
c) Cobalt chloride hexamine
d) Hexamine tricobalt chloride

25) The correct IUPAC name of the complex.

 is
a) Dichlorodimethylglyoximato cobalt (II)
b) Bis (dimethylglyoxine) dichloro-cobalt (II)
c) Dimethylglyoxime cobalt (II) chloride
d) Dichloro dimethylglyoxime-N, N-cobalt (II)

26) The IUPAC name of K2[Zn(OH)4] is
a) potassium tetrahydroxy zinc (II)
b) potassium hydroxozinc (II)
c) potassium tetrahydroxy zincate (IV)
d) potassium hydroxozinc (II)

27) The IUPAC name of the compound [Cu(NH3)4](N03)2 is.
a) Cuprammonium nitrate
b) Tetraamine copper (II) dinitrate
c) Tetraamine copper (II) nitrate
d) Tetraamine copper (I) dinitrate

28) The IUPAC name of the complex Hg[Co(CNS)4] is
a) Mercury tetrathiocyanatocobaltate (II)
b) Mercury cobalt tetrasulphocyano (II)
c) Mercury tetrasulphocyanide cobaltate(II)
d) Mercury sulphocyanatocobalt (II)

29) The IUPAC name of the compound K3[Al(C204)3] is
a) potassium aluminooxalate (II)
b) potassium alumino (III) oxalate
c) potassium trioxalatoaluminate
d) potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)

30) The IUPAC name of Fe(C5H5)2 is
a) Cyclopentadienyl iron (II)
b) Bis (cyclopentadienyl) iron (II)
c) Dicyclopentadienyl ferrate (II)
d) Ferrocene

31) The IUPAC name of Mn3(CO)12 is
a) Dodecacarbonyl manganate (0)
b) Dodecacarbonyl manganic (II)
c) Dodecacarbonyl trimanganese (0)
d) Manganic dodecacarbonyl (0)

32) The IUPAC name of [CoCl(NO2)(en)2]Cl is
a) Chloronitro bis (ethylene diamine) cobaltic (III) chloride
b) Chloronitro bis (ethylene diamine) cobalt (II) chloride
c) Chloro bis (ethylene diamine) nitrocobalt (III) chloride
d) None

33) The correct name of

 is
a)
b)
c)
d) Nonacarbonyl iron

34) Lithium tetrahydrido aluminate is correctly represented as
a)
b)
c)
d)

35) All answers @ Which of the following statements is not correct ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

36) All answers@ Which of the following statements is not correct ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

37) Which of the following statements is not correct ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

38) @ Which of the following statements is not correct ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

39) Which of the following statements is correct ?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

40) In sodium tetrafluorooxochromate Na3[Cr(O)F4] the left out place should be filled with
a) III
b) VI
c) IV
d) None of these

41) Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
a) Potassium ferrocyanide
b) Potassium ferricyanide
c) Nickel carbonyl
d) Cobalt hexammine chloride

42) Fe3+ ions form a prussian blue coloured precipitate with potassium ferrocyanide due to the formation of
a)
b)
c)
d)

43) When [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 ionises in water, the number of ions produced is
a) 4
b) 6
c) 3
d) 2

44) Which of the following is the most likely structure of CrCl3.6H2O, if 1/3 of the total chlorine of the compound is precipitated by adding AgNO3 to its aqueous solution ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

45) Which one of the following has the highest number of unpaired electrons ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

46) Which one of the following square planar complexes will show cis-trans isomerism ?
a)
b)
c)
d) MABCD

47) For which of the following configurations can octahedral complexes exist in both high spin and low spin forms ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

48) Which one is a high spin or outer-orbital complex ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

49) Choose the species which can not act as a ligand to a transition metal ion.
a)
b)
c)
d)

50) Which one of the following statements is false ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

51) Which of the following is not a co-ordination compound ?
a) Potash alum
b) Potassium ferrocyanide
c) Cuprammonium sulphate
d) Potassium ferricyanide

52) The number of ions in tetramine copper (II) hydroxide is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 7

53) What type of hybridisation is involved in Fe(CN)4-6 ?
a) sp
b)
c)
d)

54) The metal ion present in insulin is
a)
b)
c)
d)

55) Which of the following contains a non-transition metal ion ?
a) Haemoglobin
b) Chlorophyll
c) Insulin
d)

56) Which of the following compounds will exhibit co-ordination isomerism ?
a)
b)
c)
d) None of these

57) The number of geometrical isomers for [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4

58) The co-ordination number and oxidation state number of Cr in K3Cr(C2O4)3 are respectively
a) 4 and +2
b) 6 and +3
c) 3 and +3
d) 3 and 0

59) The blue complex formed on addition of conc. NH4OH to a Cu2+ salt solution has the structure
a)
b)
c)
d)

60) The colour of CuCr2O7 solution is water in green because
a)
b)
c) Both ions are green
d)

61) When CuSO4 solution is added to K4[Fe(CN)6] the formula of the product formed is
a)
b) KCN
c)
d)

62) Which type of isomerism is exhibited by [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br ?
a) Hydrate isomerism
b) lonisation isomerism
c) Ligand isomerism
d) Co-ordination isomerism

63) Which of the following ions form the most stable complex compound ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

64) Geometrical isomerism is not possible in
a)
b)
c)
d) All

65) The hybridisation of the central atom in co-ordination compounds having octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar geometries are respectively
a)
b)
c)
d)

66) Which of the following pairs exhibits linkage isomerism ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

67) Which of the following is an example of co-ordination isomerism ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

68) The number of moles of AgCl precipitated by adding AgNO3 to one molar solution of complex [Pt(NH3)3Cl2Br]Cl is
a) 1
b) 0
c) 3
d) 4

69) The most stable complex among the following is
a)
b)
c)
d)

70) The oxidation state of the metal is zero in the complex ion
a)
b)
c)
d)

71) The number of isomeric forms in which [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ ion can occur is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1

72) For which transition metal ions are low spin complexes possible?
a)
b)
c)
d) All are correct

73) Which ligand produces a high crystal field splitting (a strong ligand field) ?
a) CO
b)
c)
d) All are correct

74) Which one of the following has the largest value of crystal field splitting ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

75) CuSO4 solution reacts with excess of KCN solution to form
a)
b)
c)
d)

76) Name the metal M which is extracted on the basis of the reaction ?
4M + 8CN + 2H2O + O2® 4[M(CN)2] + 4OH

a) Ni
b) Ag
c) Cu
d) Hg

77) Which of the following is the most likely structure of CrO3.6H2O if 1/3 of the total chlorine of the compound is precipitated by adding AgNO3 to its aqueous solution ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

78) With which of the following general formulae are fac, mer isomerism associated ?
a)
b)
c) MABCD
d)

79) A square planar complex represented below will show


a) Geometrical isomerism
b) Optical isomerism
c) Linkage isomerism
d) No isomerism

80) Which of the following complexes can form d- and l-isomers ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

81) The complexes given below show.


a) Co-ordination isomerism
b) Geometrical isomerism
c) Optical isomerism
d) Bridged isomerism

82) Which of the following represents a hexadentate ligand ?
a) DMG
b) 2,2 bipyridyl
c) Ethylene diammine
d) None of these

83) The correct IUPAC name of AlCl3 (EtOH) is
a) Aluminium (II) chloride-4-ethanol
b) Aluminium (III) chloride-4-ethanol
c) Aluminium (IV) chloride-4-ethanol
d) Aluminium chloride-4-ethanol

84) The correct formula of Zeises salts is
a)
b)
c)
d)

85) The possible number of isomers for the complex [MCl2Br2]SO4 is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4

86) A complex MA3X3, where A and X are unidentate ligands may give
a) Two geometrical isomers
b) Three geometrical isomers
c) Two geometrical isomers which can be resolved into a pair of enantiomers
d) Two geometrical isomers one of which can be resolved into a pair of enantiomers

87) Fe2(CO)9 is diamagnetic. Which of the following reasons is correct?
a) The presence of one CO as bridge group
b) The presence of a monodentate ligand
c) The Fe-Fe bond in the molecule
d) the resonance hybridisation of CO

88) Which of the following metal forms a polynuclear carbonyl ?
a) Na
b) Mg
c) Mn
d) All

89) In the complex PtCl4.3NH3, the number of ionisable chlorines is
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1

90) RRR Co-ordination compounds are the compounds in which the central metal atom is linked to atoms, ions or molecules by
a) Co-ordinate bonds
b) Covalent bonds
c) Both covalent and co-ordinate bonds
d) Ionic and covalent bonds

91) Co-ordination compounds are mostly formed by

a) s-Block elements
b) p-Block elements
c) d-Block elements
d) f-Block elements

92) Which of the following is a complex of a metal other than a transition metal ?
a) Haemoglobin
b) Chlorophyll
c) Ferrocene
d)

93) The metals present in chlorophyll, haemoglobin and vitamin B12 are respectively
a) Fe, Mg and Co
b) Mg, Fe and Co
c) Co, Mg and Fe
d) None of the above is correct

94) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
a) Co-ordination compounds and complexes are synonymous terms
b) Complexes always give ions in solution
c) Complexes may give ions in solution or may not give ions in solution
d) Complex ion does not dissociate into its component parts even in solution

95) Which of the following is not a double salt but is a complex salt ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

96) The solution of the complex [Cu(NH3)4] SO4 in water
a)
b)
c)
d) Will not give the tests of any of the above species

97) Ligands are
a) Negative ions only
b) Neutral molecules only
c) Never positive ions
d) Negative or positive ions or neutral molecules.

98) EDTA is a
a) Bidentate ligand
b) Tetradentate ligand
c) Hexadentate ligand
d) Polydentate ligand

99) An element that is usually found in explosives is
a) Sulphur
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon
d) Aluminium

100) BHC is a/an
a) Synthetic polymer
b) Insecticide
c) Fertilizer
d) Detergent


Answer

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in properties – 7

1) A small subatomic particle was passed through large water tanks containing Cd. The existence of this particle was inferred when two were produced and a neutron was captured by Cd. The particle was a/an
a) Proton
b) Anti-neutrino
c) Electron
d) Neutron

2) If an equal number of atoms of two radioactive elements are considered, the most dangerous
would be the one with a half life of

a) 4.0 million years
b) 100 years
c) 0.01 sec
d) 1 sec

3) By measuring the radiation emitted by radioactive substances added to blood, the volume of the latter can be obtained. The blood volume is measured by using the radioactive isotope
a) I-131
b) H-3
c) C-13
d) U-238

4) In a reaction , the particle Z is a
a)
b) Deutron
c) Neutron
d) Proton

5) The atomic mass and atomic number of lead are 208 and 82 respectively.The atomic mass and atomic number of bismuth are 209 and 83 respectively. The Neutron/Proton ratios in one atom of the two elements
a) Is higher in lead than in bismuth
b) Is lower in lead than in bismuth
c) Is equal in both lead and bismuth
d) None

6) When the N/P ratio of an isotope is greater than the stable isotope of that element, it emits a
a)
b)
c) Neutron
d) Positron

7) Which of the following does not contain material particles?
a)
b)
c) Anode rays
d) Gamma rays

8) The common moderator of a nuclear reactor is
a)
b) Graphite
c) Beryllium
d) All are correct

9) Which of the following is an artificial radioactive series?
a) 4n+l
b) 4n+2
c) 4n
d) 4n+3

10) The missing particle in the reaction is :
a)
b)
c)
d)

11) Radioactivity is due to
a) a stable electronic configuration
b) a stable nucleus
c) an unstable nucleus
d) an unstable electronic configuration

12) After three half lives, the percentage of the original amount left is
a) 6.35
b) 12.5
c) 50
d) 75

13) A light nuclide that has n/p ratio 2 and has the magic number of neutrons but still shows radioactivity is ….
a)
b)
c)
d)

14) is neutron poor. Its stability can be increased by
a) Positron emission
b) Beta – decay
c) Alpha – decay
d) Electron capture

15) In breeder reactors
a) Th – 232 isotope can be used to breed the fissionable isotope, U – 233
b) The U – 238 isotope can be used to breed the fissionable isotope Pu – 239
c) More fissionable material is produced than it is consumed
d) All of these are true

16) A radioactive isotope decays at a rate such that after 96-min only l/8th of the original amount remains. The of this nuclide is?
a) 12 min
b) 32 min
c) 24 min
d) 48 min

17) Which one of the following isotopes would be most likely to undergo fission?
a)
b)
c)
d)

18) In a breeder reactor which of the following is converted to fissionable fuel?
a)
b)
c)
d)

19) Which of the following statements is wrong?
a)
b)
c)
d) The excessive use of radioactive elements is responsible for cancerous growth

20) X and Y are isotones. Their mass numbers are70 and 72 respectively. If the atomic number of X is 34, what is that of Y?
a) 32
b) 36
c) 30
d) 38

21) The radioactive isotopes which have an excessive neutron/proton ratio generally exhibit
a) Positron emission
b) X ray emission
c) Alpha emission
d) Beta emission

22) In a nuclear chain reaction
a) All the neutrons produced by the initial fission event are captured
b) Each fission event produces ten or more neutrons
c) Each fission event produces one to three neutrons
d) Each fission fragment fissions into two smaller fragments

23) A high value for the half-life period of a radioactive element means
a) High instability
b) Greater stability
c)
d)

24) What is the half-life of , if its disintegration constant is 2.31 10-4 year-1?
a)
b)
c)
d)

25) The half-life period of a substance is 77 days. Calculate the decay constant.
a)
b)
c)
d)

26) @ For Fe the mass defect is 0.528068u. Calculate the binding energy per nucleon. (Iu=931Mev)
a) 87.8 MeV
b) 8.78 MeV
c) 878 MeV
d) 492 MeV

27) In the following nuclear reactions and . The and X2 are respectively
a)
b)
c)
d)

28) 24195Am and 23490Th belong respectively to the
a) 4n and 4n+l radioactive series
b) 4n+l and 4n+3 radioactive series
c) 4n+l and 4n+2 radioactive series
d) 4n+l and 4n radioactive series

29) In the sequence of the following nuclear reactions, , the value of n will be
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

30) The radium and uranium atoms in a sample of uranium mineral are in the ratio of 1: 2.8 x 106. If the half-life period of radium is 1620 years, the half-life period of uranium will be
a)
b)
c)
d)

31) The activity of carbon-14 in a piece of an ancient wood is only 12.5%. If the half-life period of C-14 is 5760 years, the age of the piece of wood is
a)
b)
c)
d)

32) The end product of the (4n+1) radioactive disintegration series is
a)
b)
c)
d)

33) Gallium was named by Mendeleev as
a) Eka – aluminium
b) Eka – silicon
c) Eka – germanium
d) Eka – Zinc

34) The element with atomic number 59 belongs to the
a) Lanthanides
b) Actinides
c) Transition elements
d) S- block

35) The number of elements present in the fifth period of the periodic table is
a) 8
b) 15
c) 18
d) 32

36) Mosley proposed that the properties of elements are dependent upon their
a) Atomic number
b) Atomic weight
c) Positron number
d) Deutron number

37) The group number of an element with atomic number 57 is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

38) Transuranic elements
a) Are all synthetic elements
b) Include element no. 104
c) Have fixed valency
d) None of the above

39) The 3 d transition series contains elements having atomic number from
a) 22 to 30
b) 21 to 30
c) 21 to 31
d) 21 to 29

40) The element with the atomic number 24 in the periodic table belongs to group
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

41) Atomic radii decrease on moving
a) From left to right in any given period
b) From top to bottom in any given group
c) Diagonally in the periodic tables
d) None of the above

42) In a period from Li to F, the ionisation potential
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) None of these

43) The ionization potential of an element does not depend upon
a) Its nuclear charge
b) The shielding effect
c) its electron neutrality
d) its penetrating effect

44) The most electronegative element of the following is
a) F
b) Na
c) O
d) S

45) The correct order of decreasing electro negativity is
a) I > Br > Cl > F
b) F > Cl > Br > I
c) Cl > F > Br > I
d) Br > Cl > I > F

46) In the long form of the periodic table all the non-metals are placed in the
a) s – block
b) p – block
c) f – block
d) d – block

47) The fifth period of elements in the periodic table correspond to the filling up of
a) 5s
b) 4d
c) 5p
d) all these

48) An element ‘X’ has an atomic number 53. The atomic numbers of the elements placed just above and below it in the periodic table will be
a) 21 and 61
b) 45 and 85
c) 35 and 85
d) 35 and 61

49) d-block elements have their inner electronic configuration as
a) ns1
b) ns2
c) both (a) and (b)
d) (n-1)d1-10

50) Which of the following triads of elements is not truly transitional?
a) Fe,Co,Ni
b) Fe,Ru,Os
c) Ni,Pd,Pt
d) Zn,Cd,Hg

51) The number of transition series of elements in the periodic table is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

52) The effective nuclear charge experienced by the valence shell electron of Fluorine is
a) 9
b) 3.8
c) 7.6
d) 5.2

53) The increasing order of ionic radii for the ions O2-, Na+, Mg2+, AI3+ is
a) Na+ > Mg2+ > AI3+> O 2-
b) O 2- > AI 3+ > Mg 2+ > Na +
c) AI 3+ < Mg 2+ > Na + < O 2-
d) AI 3+ < Mg 2+ < Na + < O 2-

54) The number of electrons present per mole of nitride ion and azide ion respectively are
a) 6N,21 N
b) 7N,22N
c) 8N,24N
d) 10N,22N

55) The first and second ionization potential values of two elements X and Y are

Element        First I.P.     Second I.P.kJ/.mol
     X                520                7298
     Y                495.8              4562 
X and Y are
a) alkali metals
b) alkaline earth metals
c) transition metals
d) inner transition elements

56) The increasing order of first ionization potential values for Be, B, N and O is 
a) Be<b<n<o
b) B<be<o<n
c) B>Bi>N>O
d) O<n<be<b

57) To which period and group in the periodic table does the element unil quadium (104 Unq) belong according to the IUPAC system ?
a) 7,0
b) 7,1
c) 7,2
d) 7,4

58) The elements with the highest electronegativity and electron affinity are 
a) F,F
b) Cl,Cl
c) Cl,F
d) F,Cl

59) The electro negativity values of the elements O,F,N and Cl are in the order 
a) F>C1>O>N
b) F>O>N=Cl
c) F>O>N>Cl
d) F < O > N > Cl

60) The pair of compounds among the following which will dissolve in water is
a) NaHCO3 and Mg(HCO3)2
b) Na2CO3,MgCO3
c) Na2CO3, Mg(HCO3)2
d) NaHCO3 Mg2CO3

61) The electronic configuration of the Re3+ ion is [Xe]4f145 d4. The atomic number of the element is 
a) 72
b) 73
c) 74
d) 75

62) The charge on the K+ ion, potassium metal and potassium nucleus respectively is
a) +1,0,+19
b) +1,0,+1
c) 0,0,+1
d) +18,0,+1

Answer

            
         

        

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in properties- 6

1) The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 2.5 hour. What mass of it remains undecayed after 10 hours? The initial mass of the isotope was 16 g.
a) 32 g
b) 16 g
c) 4g
d) 1g

2) In a nuclear reactor the function of the moderator is
a) To slow down the speed of neutrons
b) To increase the speed of neutrons
c) To produce more neutrons
d) To stop the nuclear reaction

3) Which of the following is used as neutron absorber in the nuclear reactor?
a) Water
b) Deuterium
c) Some compound of uranium
d) Cadmium

4) If the amount of radioactive substance is increased three times, the number of disintegrating atoms per unit time will
a) Be doubled
b) Be tripled
c) become one third
d) be unchanged

5) According to the nuclear reaction 4Be + 42He 126C + 10n, the mass number of the Be atom is:
a) 4
b) 8
c) 6
d) 9

6) A radioactive isotope decays at such a rate that after 96 min. only 1/8th of the original amount remains. The half-life period is
a) 12.0 min
b) 32.0 min
c) 24.0 min
d) 48.0 min

7) Which is the correct statement?
a) Isotopes are always radioactive.
b)
c)
d) gamma rays can be deflected in a magnetic field

8) The half-life of a certain radioactive element is 100 years. The time in which it disintegrates 50% of its mass is:
a) 50 years
b) 200 years
c) 100 years
d) 25 years

9) Which of the following elements belongs to the 4n-series ?
a) Pb-206
b) Bi-209
c) Pb-208
d) Pb-207

10) The change from requires
a) a
b) a
c) a neutron
d) a positron

11) C-14 has a half-life of 5760 years. 100 mg of sample containing C-14 is reduced to 25 mg in:
a) 11520 years
b) 2880 years
c) 1440 years
d) 17280 years

12) An atom bomb is based on the principle of
a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear fission
c) Radioactivity
d) Nuclear fission and fusion both.

13) Which is not fissionable material?
a) U-238
b) U-235
c) U-233
d) Pu-239

14) When a radioactive element emits an electron the daughter element formed will have
a) Mass number of one unit less
b) Atomic number of one unit more
c) Mass number of one unit more
d) Atomic number of one unit less

15) D2O is used in
a) Industry
b) Nuclear reactors
c) Medicine
d) Insecticide

16) A a
a) Positive charge and negligible mass
b) Negative charge and negligible mass
c) Positive charge and some mass
d) Negative charge and some mass

17) emits an, the product has a mass number and atomic number
a) 236, 92
b) 234, 90
c) 238, 90
d) 236, 90

18) The particles more useful for nuclear fission are:
a) Fast neutrons
b) Slow neutrons
c) Fast protons
d) Slow protons

19) Isotopes have the same chemical properties because they have the same
a) Atomic mass
b) Atomic number
c) Mass number
d) Numbers of electrons

20) Which pair represents isobars ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

21) Slow neutrons can cause the fission of
a)
b)
c)
d)

22) Radium with the atomic mass 226 and atomic number 88, on emission of an gives rise to an element whose atomic weight and atomic numbers are
a) 222 and 86
b) 222 and 84
c) 225 and 87
d) 230 and 86

23) belongs to III B group of the periodic table. If it loses one , the new element will belong to the group
a) I B
b) IA
c) III B
d) V B

24) The total binding energy of an is
a) 28.3 MeV
b) 2.83 MeV
c) 20.5 MeV
d) 0.283 MeV

25) The radioactive substances have been decaying and releasing energy as well as radiation on the earth
a) Since the last 2000 years
b) Before the universe was created
c) Since 2 million years
d) Since the formation of earth

26) In which of the following the magic numbers of both protons and neutrons are present?
a)
b)
c)
d)

27) Which particle is used to bombard to give ?
a) Proton
b) Neutron
c)
d) Deutron

28) The quantity of radioactive element, which undergoes 106 disintegrations per second, is called
a) Rutherford
b) Curie
c) Becquerel
d) None

29) The least branching is found in which of the following radioactive series
a) 4n+2
b) 4n
c) 4n+3
d) 4n+l

30) Nuclei with the atomic number or the number of neutrons equal to 2, 8, 28, 50, 82, 126 are more stable. These are called
a) Atomic numbers
b) Magic numbers
c) Mass numbers
d) None

31) The radioactivity of neptunium stops when it is converted to
a) Th
b) Rn
c) Pb
d) Bi

32) Nuclear reactions accompanied by the emission of neutron (s) are
a)
b)
c)
d)

33) Which is the nucleus produced when a 23892U nucleus undergoes a deutron, 2n (d, 2n) reaction followed by a ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

34) The isotope used to find the age of relics is
a)
b)
c)
d)

35) The decay of mass during nuclear fission and fusion are:
a) 0.1%, 0.231%
b) 0.231%, 0.1 %
c) 0.4% and 0.2%
d) 0.3% and 0.6%

36) The half-life period of lead is expected to be
a) 1590 years
b) 1590 days
c) 159 days
d) Zero

37) The hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
a) Nuclear fission
b) Nuclear fusion
c) Artificial radioactivity
d) Natural radioactivity

38) Positron emission results from the transformation of one nuclear proton into a neutron. The nuclide thus produced will have the
a) Nuclear charge higher by unity
b) Same mass number
c) Increased radioactivity
d) No radioactivity.

39) Which isotope on bombardment with will give ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

40) A magnet will cause the greatest deflection of
a) Gamma rays
b) Beta rays
c) Alpha rays
d) Neutrons

41) The following radiation does not consist of particles of matter:
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Gamma
d) Neutrons

42) The waves having the maximum velocity which are produced by radioactive decay are
a)
b)
c)
d) Positron

43) The solar or steller energy emitted by sun and stars is considered to be due to
a) Fission of hydrogen nuclei
b) Fusion of hydrogen nuclei
c) Continuous burning of hydrogen
d) None of these

44) Stable nuclides are those whose N/P ratio is:
a) N/P=1
b) N/P=2
c) N/P > 1
d) N/P < 1

45) What will be the total number of electrons, protons and neutrons in the product formed by loss of one from ?
a) 326
b) 3330
c) 324
d) 332

46) What is the packing fraction of iron? () Atomic mass of Fe = 55.92066.
a) +14.167
b) +73.90
c) -14.167
d) -73.90

47) An element X loses 1— and 2— particles in successive stages. The resulting element would be
a) An isobar of X
b) An isotope of X
c) X itself
d) An isotone of X

48) The half-life of a radioactive element is 30 minutes. One sixteenth of the original quantity of the element will be left after
a) 1 hour
b) 16 hours
c) 4 hours
d) 2 hours

49) The formation of isotopes is due to the
a) Difference of protons
b) Difference of electrons
c) Difference of neutrons
d) None

50) 8.0 g. of a radioactive substance is reduced to 0.5 g. after one hour. The half-life period of the radioactive substance is
a) 15 min
b) 30 min
c) 45 min
d) 10 min

51) The nuclide 24799Es can be obtained by bombarding 23992U in a reactor that emits 5 neutrons. The bombarding particle is
a)
b)
c)
d)

52) The value of the disintegration constant of a radioactive isotope
a) Decreases with increasing temperature
b) Decreases with increasing pressure
c) Increases with increasing concentration
d) Is independent of temperature, pressure, and concentration

53) Which of the following is not radioactive?
a) Cm
b) Ra
c) Mo
d) Md

54) If by mistake some radioactive substance gets into human body, then from the point of view of radiation damage, the most harmful will be one that emits
a)
b) Neutrons
c)
d)

55) Which radioactive isotope is used for temperature control in blood disease?
a)
b)
c)
d)

56) In most stable elements the number of proton and neutron is
a) Even-even
b) Even-odd
c) Odd-even
d) Odd-odd

57) The Segre chart is
a) The variation of B emission vs neutron number (N)
b) The variation of emission vs neutron number (N)
c) The variation of neutron number (N) vs proton number (Z)
d) The variation of positron emission vs neutron number

58) @ 90Th is a member of III group. On losing an , it forms a new element which belongs to
a) I group
b) III group
c) II group
d) IV group

59) What is the symbol for the nucleus remaining after undergoes —emission?
a)
b)
c)
d)

60) The distance between nucleons in an atomic nucleus is of the order of (IF = 10-13cm).
a) 200 Fermi
b) 50 Fermi
c) 2 Fermi
d) 1000 Fermi

61) When the parent nucleus emits a the daughter element is shifted in the periodic table by
a) One place to the right
b) One place to the left
c) Two places to the left
d) Two places to the right

62) The rays whose range in air is very small are
a)
b)
c)
d) Light waves

63) Breeder reactors are nuclear reactors that are capable of converting non-radioactive isotopes into radioactive fissionable isotopes, which can be used to generate energy. 238U is a non- radioactive isotope, it is converted into radioactive
a)
b)
c)
d)

64) An element undergoes followed by two successive The element formed is
a)
b)
c)
d)

65) Radiation emitted by radioactive isotopes can be fatal. They are therefore transported carefully in
a) Metallic bottles
b) Cooled helium
c) Containers made of iron amalgam
d) Containers made of lead

66) Which has therapeutic value?
a)
b)
c)
d) All

67) 128 I has no therapeutic value because
a) It is poisonous
b) It is very stable
c) It decays quickly and loses radioactivity
d) None

68) @ The number of neutrons accompanying the formation of and from the absorption of a slow neutron by followed by nuclear fission is
a) Zero
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3

69) In the radioactive transformation , the nuclei R and Z are ?
a) Isotopes
b) Isobars
c) Isomers
d) Isotones

70) A nucleus is struck by a neutron and changes to along with three neutrons and an unknown product. The unknown product is :
a)
b)
c)
d)

71) When nuclear energy is intended to be harnessed for generation of electricity, potentially destructive neutrons released in a nuclear reactor are absorbed by
a) Heavy water
b) Long rods of Cd
c) Cubic blocks of steel
d) Both (b) and (c)

72) The decay of a radioactive element follows first order kinetics. Hence
a)
b) The rate of decay is independent of the temperature
c) The rate can be altered by changing chemical conditions
d) The element will be completely transformed into a new element after the expiry of two half-life periods.

73) Through the body of every person, millions of particles pass through silently every second. These particles are:
a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Neutrons
d) None

74) NeutronProton + X + Antineutrino. What is X ?
a) Electron
b) Neutron
c) Proton
d) Deutron

75) Particles having energy of several hundred MeV are called
a) Electrons
b) Nucleons
c) Fast particles
d) Super fast particles

76) The nuclear process that takes place when a hydrogen bomb is exploded is of the same nature as the process taking place
a) In the centre of the earth
b) On the sun and the stars
c) During a red dust storm
d) During atomic bomb fission

77) Which are not emitted by radium?
a)
b)
c)
d) X-rays

78) The radioactive series to which radium, 224Ra belongs is the
a) Uranium series
b) Thorium series
c) Neptunium series
d) Actnium series

79) Neutrons can be detected during the emission of
a)
b)
c) Proton
d)

80) A nuclear reactor may be cooled by transferring the heat generated from the reactor to a turbine steam boiler by using
a) Fe vapours
b) Radioactive carbon
c) Molten sodium
d) Compressed hydrogen

81) The pair of similar radiations from among the following is
a)
b)
c)
d)

82) The strength of nuclear forces when compared to electrostatic forces is
a)
b)
c)
d)

83) All nuclides exhibit radioactivity when the atomic number exceeds
a) 80
b) 90
c) 82
d) 92

84) The formation of a nucleus from its nucleons is accompanied by a/an
a) Decrease in mass
b) Increase in mass
c) No change in mass
d) A decrease or increase or no change in mass

85) The most likely mode of decay for is
a)
b)
c)
d) Electron capture

86) The fundamental particle having the least mass is a/an
a) Meson
b) Neutrino
c) Positron
d) Electron

87) A nuclide emitting gamma rays loses
a) Electrons
b) Electric charge
c) Energy
d) Stability

88) -particles having a velocity almost equal to the velocity of light are called
a)
b)
c) Super fast particles
d) None

89) If two nuclei are fused together in a nuclear reaction, the average energy per nucleon
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Cannot be determined

90) One atomic mass unit is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d) None

91) In the case of radioactive equilibrium, the one with a higher average life is present in … amount than other with a short average life,
a) Smaller
b) Greater
c) Equal
d) Either

92) Which is the least effective for artificial transmutation ?
a) Neutrons
b) Deutrons
c) Protons
d)

93) An element has a half-life of 5 days. The time taken for 7/8th of a sample to decay is
a) 3.4 days
b) 10 days
c) 15 days
d) 20 days

94) @ In the nuclear change Fission products + neutron + 3.20 x 10-11 J, the energy released when 1 g. of finally undergoes fission is
a)
b)
c)
d)

95) Plutonium decays with t1/2 = 24000 years. If plutonium is stored for 72000 years, the fraction of it remains
a) 1/8
b) 1/3
c) 14
d) 1/2

96) The radioisotope used in the treatment of cancer is
a) C-12
b) Co-60
c) 1-131
d) P-31

97) Which of the following radioactive isotopes is used for hyperthyroidism?
a)
b)
c)
d)

98) In which of the following is radioactive isotope I-131 used ?
a) In the diagnosis of liver and kidney disorder
b) Treatment of thyroid disease
c) To increase the absorption of calcium in the body
d) To locate tumours in the brain

99) The density of nuclear matter is
a)
b)
c)
d)

100) One atom containing 10 protons, 11 neutrons and 10 electrons and another atom containing 11 protons, 10 neutrons and 11 electrons are called?
a) Isotones
b) Isotopes
c) Isobars
d) Isomers


Answer